The correct answer is C
Infiltrating Lobular Carcinoma (invasive breast carcinoma)
Presentation
May or may not have mass No desmoplastic response so hard to see and feel – clinically and mammogram occult
Pathology:
Gross: solid mass but maybe completely undetectable Histo: linear, single cells or targetoid pattern of malignant cells, low nuclear grade, minimum mitotic activity NO desmoplastic response

The Correct Answer is D
The morphofunctional unit of the breast is composed of two units
- Terminal duct lobular unit (TDLU) - consists lobule and smaller terminal ductules - together empty into the segmental duct, then the lactiferous sinus, then the collecting duct
- Large collecting ducts - Most of the breast stroma consists a loose connective tissue, adipose tissue, elastic fibers that support the larger ducts (interlobular stroma) - However each lobule is surrounded by the intralobular stroma (hormonal responsive stroma) - Blood supply of the breast is predominantly from the internal mammary artery and lateral thoracic artery - Lymphatic drainage is a valveless unidirectional flow from superficial to deep - Majority of lymphatic drainage is to axillary nodes, 97% - 3% going to internal mammary chain

The Correct Answer is B
Periductal Mastitis is a condition where non-dilated subareolar breasts ducts become infected. It most commonly affects young women, with a mean age of 32 years.
The condition may present with periareolar inflammation, and the breast may be tender. There may be a history of nipple discharge and on examination the nipple may be retracted and there may be an associated inflammatory mass or abscess.
A total of 133 women with periductal mastitis and 98 women with intraductal papillomas were studied. Pathologists were asked to grade the degree of periductal inflammation and duct dilatation and to determine the presence or absence of squamous metaplasia without previous knowledge of the clinical condition of the women. The inflammation and dilatation were graded as mild, moderate or severe (acute). Cigarette smoking was defined as absent, light (one to 10 cigarettes per day). Approximately 50 percent of the women with periductal mastitis presented with acute inflammatory breast disease. Women with periductal mastitis were more likely to be premenopausal than were women with intraductal papillomas. No differences in parity or the use of hormones were apparent. Cigarette smoking was significantly more common in women with mastitis than in women with papillomas, and the number of cigarettes smoked per day was greater in women with periductal mastitis.

The correct answer is B
Breast development
It is a progressive process initiated during embryonic life. Puberty marks the beginning of glandular maturation,full breast differentiation is only attained with pregnancy and lactation. At birth the breast is formed by 10-12 ductal elements located beneath the nipple-areola complex In boys,breast development does not progress much past the initial 10-12 ductal elements. In girls, however, puberty begins at 10-12 yrs of age and development is under the control of the Hypothalmic-pituitary axis Estrogen acts locally on mammary gland to increase branching of the ducts and is accompanied by an increase in the stroma This is thought to be mediated by an estrogen receptor (ER) Again full differentiation of mammary glands and of branching and secretory activity may never be attained without pregnancy During pregnancy and lactation the maximum branching capability of the breast is expressed. The breast of nulliparous women contains more undifferentiated structures The cells in ductal structures of nulliparous women are in a more proliferative phase vs. parous breast that are predominantly in Go-resting phase The content of ER in the lobular structures is directly proportional to the rate of cellular proliferation. The more differentiation of the lobule the less ER This provides an explanation for the greater susceptibility of these structures to be transformed by chemical carcinogens It is the observation that these more immature breast lobules is site of origin of ductal carcinomas. It is hypothesized that the differences of differentiation of the ductal structures lead to neoplastic changes

The correct Answer is C
Right to left shunt occurs in:
1. Transposition of great vessels
2. pulmonary stenosis
3. tricuspid atresia
4. tetralogy of Fallot
Tags: MCQ, Cardiology, Congenital heart disease

The correct answer is B
“Coarctation of the aorta” means a localised malformation characterised by deformity of the aortic media, causing narrowing of the lumen of the aorta;
BP in arms > legs, absent femoral but palpable pedal pulses, thrills or bruits over the intercostals arteries Rib notching is present on inferior edge of rib Arteriography can be used to diagnose Usually distal to the origin of the left subclavian artery.

The correct answer is C
VSD – most common CHD (25%), membranous type most common, large LA/RV, LV remains normal;
ASD – ostium secundum type most common, large RA/RV/PA;
PDA – premature infants, maternal rubella, large LA/LV/aorta;
ECD – ostium primum ASD, Down’s, gooseneck deformity on angio from LV outlet obstruction; PAPVR – right SVC most common, IVC (scimitar syndrome)

The Correct Answer is E
Tetralogy of fallot is characterized by four major defects. These four conditions include pulmonary stenosis, ventricular septal defect, overriding aorta, and hypertrophy of the right ventricle occur due to abnormal development of the fetal heart during the first 8 weeks of pregnancy. These problems include the following:
Ventricular septal defect (VSD) - an opening in the ventricular septum, or dividing wall between the two lower chambers of the heart known as the right and left ventricles. Pulmonary (or right ventricular outflow tract) obstruction - a muscular obstruction in the right ventricle, just below the pulmonary valve, that decreases the normal flow of blood. The pulmonary valve may also be small. Overriding aorta - the aorta is shifted towards the right side of the heart so that it sits over the ventricular septal defect.

The Correct Answer is C
Trisomy 21 or Down syndrome
47, XY, +21 or 47, XX, +21 is seen in approximately 1/800 live births making it the most common. Was first described in 1866 by John Langdon Down.
In 1959 it was discovered that it was caused by the presence of an extra chromosome 21. There are some significant medical problems associated with this condition.

The correct answer is C
Pernicious Anemia
Common disorder: prevalence circa 0.1%: peak 60 yrs: M:F 1:2.
There is an autoimmune attack on the gastric parietal cell manifest histologically as atrophic gastritis. Patients are unable to secrete acid or intrinsic factor. There is a significant association with vitiligo and thyroid disease. There may be a family history of Pernicious Anemia and thyroid disease. Intrinsic Factor autoantibodies are present in the serum of 50-75% of cases, and are highly specific.
Tags: MCQ, Hematology, Pernicious Anemia

The correct Answer is A
Fatty streakEarliest visible lesion – develop early in lifeGrossly – areas of yellow discoloration on inner arterial surfaceUsually <>Do NOT protrude into lumenDo NOT disturb blood flowMicroscopically – Subendothelial accumulation of foam cells filled w/ intracellular lipid (majority derived from macrophages)Asymptomatic and may regress over time (depends on location)Often precursors to fibrous plaques Although heart disease is not common before age 40, fatty streaks in arterial walls have been found in some 5-year-old children. Over time, these streaks can become ‘plaques’ with the potential to block arteries.

The Correct Answer is C
CHOLESTEROL: Cholesterol is a fat-like substance found in all foods of animal origin (meat, poultry, fish, and dairy products) but not in food from plants. It is also produced by the liver. Cholesterol is a normal component of the blood and is needed for nerves, cell walls, and hormones. However, too much cholesterol can build up in arteries leading to heart disease, stroke, hypertension, and atherosclerosis. Cholesterol is transported in the blood in several forms - two important forms are high-density lipoprotein (HDL) and low-density lipoprotein (LDL). Levels are dependent upon age, diet, heredity and exercise.

The correct answer is C
There are four main blood fats that must be controlled in order to protect your heart and blood vessels.
Type
Total Cholesterol Recommended Levels
Less than 200 mg/dl LDL Cholesterol Less than 100 mg/dl HDL Cholesterol Above 40 mg/dl Triglycerides Less than 150 mg/dl
Tags: MCQ, Biochemistry, cholesterol

The Correct Answer is B
BRONCHIECTASIS
Definition: Bronchiectasis is a condition of the respiratory tract characterized by abnormal permanent dilatation of bronchi and bronchioles. It is associated with a severe, chronic infection of the airways.
Pathology:
a. Chronic, necrotizing infection of a segment or multiple segments of the lung.
Infection damages and weakens walls of bronchi so that these structures become markedly dilated and filled with mucous and pus.

The correct Answer is D
Endocardial Cushion Defects (ECD) result from the failure of the endocardial cushions to develop properly. Aplasia or hypoplasia of the EC is the cause. Children with ECD present with Congestive heart failure if defect is severe.
Complete AV canal: involves a foramen primum ASD, a posterior VSD, and abnormal tricuspid and bicuspid valves (often with only a single, incompetent AV valve). A LVàRA shunt can occur if the AV portion of the septum is absent.Partial AV canal: foramen primum ASD, with cleft in mitral valve --> mitral incompetence. There are several ways endocardial cushion defects can be treated. Typically a Dacron patch is used to close the holes in the atrial and ventricular walls and the AV valve is repositioned and/or repaired.

The Correct Answer is E
This anatomical continuity predisposes to thrombosis as a result of turbulence.
Tags: MCQ, Pathology, Cardiac

The correct answer is E.
 
page 1669 harri 16 -
"ABO incompatibilities are hazardous because of the presence of natural anribodies in recipients and the normal expression of A and B blood group substances on endothelium, resulting in immediate vascular injury."
Types of graft rejection:
Hyperacute -extremely rapid rejection (hours) occlusion of graft vessels
Hyperacute rejection is mediated by pre-existing antibodies against donor antigens

The correct answer is A.
Acute pyelonephritis is an infectious disease involving the kidney parenchyma and the renal pelvis. Gram-negative bacteria, such as Escherichia coli, Proteus, Klebsiella, and Enterobacter, are the most common causative organisms in acute pyelonephritis. Laboratory evaluation will often reveal leukocytosis with a left shift, and urinalysis typically shows pyuria, varying degrees of hematuria, and white cell casts. Since bacteremia is present, the patient should be hospitalized and empirically started on IV ampicillin and gentamicin. This regimen may be need to be changed, however, once the sensitivity results are available.

The correct answer is E.
Beta-adrenergic blockade may blunt or prevent the premonitory signs and symptoms (e.g., tachycardia, blood pressure changes) of acute episodes of hypoglycemia. Non-selective beta-blockers, such as propranolol, may even potentiate insulin-induced hypoglycemia. Even though this effect is less likely with cardioselective agents, the use of either cardioselective or non-selective beta-blockers in diabetics is not recommended due to their "masking" effect of the normal warning signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia. None of the drugs listed in the othe r choices will blunt the premonitory signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia.

The Correct Answer is C
Small thrombi that develop on cardiac valves are termed vegetations. Vegetations may be seen in bacterial infection of the valves (bacterial endocarditis) also seen with IV drug users, systemic lupus erythematosus, and in chronic wasting states.
Please see Figure 1 (Figure 12-22 in Robbins 5th edition).
This figure diagrammatically compares the lesions of the four major forms of vegetative endocarditis:

The correct answer is D
RISK FACTORS FOR ATHEROSCLEROSIS
I: Immutable
Heredity: - ↑ed risk if close relative has AS before 65 years - however, not direct transmission in obvious pattern
Sex: - males have ↑ed risk (LDL:HDL ratio) - however, female ‘advantage’ ends with menopause
Age: - AS ↑es with age II: Mutable

The correct answer is C
Troponin is the inhibitory or contractile regulating protein complex of striated muscle. It is located periodically along the thin filament of the muscle and consists of three distinct proteins: troponin I, troponin C, and troponin T. Likewise, the troponin I subunit exists in three separate isoforms; two in fast-twitch and slow-twitch skeletal muscle fibers, and one in cardiac muscle. The cardiac isoform (cTnI) is about 40% dissimilar, has a molecular weight of 22,500 daltons, and has 31 additional amino acid residues that are not present on the skeletal isoforms. Cardiac troponin I (cTnI) has been useful in the differential diagnosis of patients presenting to Emergency Departments (ED) with chest pain.

The Correct Answer is D
The lesion is a malignant melanoma. Melanomas can develop either de novo or in an existing mole. Sunlight exposure is a significant risk factor and fair-skinned persons are at increased risk of developing melanoma. The most significant factor for long term prognosis is the depth of the lesion, since the superficial dermis lies about 1 mm under the skin surface, and penetration to this depth is associated with a much higher incidence of metastasis than is seen with a more superficial location.

The Correct Answer is A
Acute rheumatic fever is triggered by infection with specific strains of group A streptococci which possess antigens that cross-react with human connective tissue, particularly heart valve glycoprotein...
the condition usually affects children or young adults, and there is a familial variation in susceptibility...its prevalance in Western Europe and North America has progressively declined to very low levels, but it remains common in parts of asia, africa and south america, where it is still the most common cause of acquired heart disease in childhood adolescence...

The correct answer is A.
The space constant of an axon reflects the amount of passive or electrotonic spread of current within an axon. The larger the space constant, the further the current can spread, allowing action potentials to propagate faster. This is why myelin increases the conduction velocity of action potentials down an axon. Conversely, demyelination decreases the space constant and slows action potential conduction

The Correct Answer is D
When muscles contract during exercise, blood flow can increase more than 20-fold. This increase in blood flow is termed active hyperemia. If muscle contraction is occurring during whole body exercise (e.g., running), more than 80% of cardiac output can be directed to the contracting muscles. Therefore, skeletal muscle has a very large flow reserve (or capacity) relative to its blood flow at rest, indicating that the vasculature in resting muscle has a high degree of vascular tone.

The Correct Answer is B
The word "condyloma" comes from the Greek word meaning "knob." Any knob-like or warty growth on the genitals is known as a condyloma. Venereal warts caused by human papilloma virus are known as "condyloma accuminata" (venereal warts). The skin lesions caused by Molitor hominus are known as "condyloma subcutaneum" (molluscum contagiosum). The skin lesions associated with secondary syphilis are called "condyloma lata." They have in common with veneral warts the fact that they are both raised lesions on the vulva (or penis), but there ends the similarity.

The correct answer is B
More information on Endocrinology of the male reproductive system.
Tags: MCQ, anatomy, Embryology

The Correct Answer is d
Tags: MCQ, gynecology, Dilatation and curettage

The Correct Answer is E
The Papanicolaou (Pap) smear was developed by George Papanicolaou in the early 1900s to study the estrous cycle of the guinea pig. Papanicolaou believed the screening also could have useful applications for women. Pap smears can detect abnormal cellular changes before more serious problems develop, such as cervical cancer.
Tags: MCQ, Pathology, PAP Smear

A 65 year old male with a 20 pack/year smoking history and a 4 centimeter peripheral lung nodule on chest X-ray presents to your primary care practice. You should
a. schedule him for bronchoscopy
b. schedule him for an open thoracotomy
c. schedule him for a computerized tomography guided needle aspiration
d. send his sputum for analysis as sputum is positive in greater than 95% of cases of cancer
e. start antibiotics
Answer
Tags: MCQ, Radiology, solitary pulmonary nodule

The Correct Answer is E
Tags: MCQ, Pathology

The Correct Answer is B
Tags: MCQ, Pathology

The Correct Answer is C
Single-donor plasma / fresh frozen plasma
“Plasma transfusion.” Rich in the clotting factors, proteins C and S, complement, and immunoglobulins. It reverses coumarin effect, replaces clotting fators, and is okay for HUS/TTP.
It takes about 30 minutes to thaw. Of course there is an infection risk.
“Universal donor” for plasma is group AB; “universal recipient” is group O. This seldom comes up in practice. Since there are no red cells in fresh-frozen plasma, Rh does not matter.

The Correct Answer is C
The dose of platelets should be individualized. A number of simple rules can be used to calculate the appropriate dose. A dose of 1 random donor platelet concentrate per 10 kg body weight can be expected to increase the platelet count by 5000/uL in a non-refractory patient. One random donor platelet concentrate is expected to increase the platelet count by 5000 to 10,000/uL in a 70 kg patient who is not refractory. Generally, a pool of 6 to 8 platelet concentrates or a single apheresis unit is sufficient to correct or prevent bleeding in a normal sized adult weighing up to 90 kg.One apheresis product is equivalent to 6 to 8 random donor platelet concentrates and therefore should increase the platelet count by 30,000/uL to 40,000/uL in a 70 kg patient.For pediatric patients, 5 mL/kg body weight of a random donor platelet concentrate should increase the platelet count by 5000/uL. A single platelet concentrate contains about 45 to 50 mL and should supply the needs of patients up to 8 kg. If the entire platelet concentrate is not used for a given patient, it is not practical to salvage the remainder of the unit.For children >8 kg, a standard dose of 1 unit/10 kg should be used.In the absence of increased platelet destruction, platelet transfusion will usually need to be repeated every 3-5 days.If increased platelet destruction or consumption is present, daily administration may be required.Source

The Correct Answer is B
Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)-this hormone is produced by the pituitary gland in the brain and stimulates the thyroid gland to produce T4. When the thyroid gland is not producing enough T4, the pituitary gland produces more TSH, signaling the thyroid gland to work harder. If the T4 level is low, the TSH level is usually high.
a glycoprotein.Stimulates thyroid gland.Secretion regulated by thyroxine in blood.Secretion regulated by hypothalamic hormones.TSH secretion is stimulated by the hypothalamic tripeptide TRH. Tags: MCQ, Physiology, TSH, Thyroid Stimulating Hormone

The Correct ANSWER is C
HIV/AIDS is a communicable yet preventable disease, which can lead to serious social and economic repercussions. India's national adult HIV prevalence rate of less than 1% offers little indication of the serious situation facing the country. An estimated 4 million people were living with HIV at the end of 2003—the second-highest figure in the world, after South Africa.
While HIV/AIDS was once considered a "white gay man's disease," a larger proportion of new HIV diagnoses in several Western European countries is occurring through heterosexual intercourse. For example, more than half of the new HIV infections diagnosed in the UK in 2001 resulted from heterosexual sex, compared with 33% of new infections in 1998.

The Correct Answer is D
Raised intracranial pressure could be the result of the following:
1 Increase of the volume of the normal content of the intracranial cavity, as increase in the volume of CSF as in hydrocephalus ,increase in the volume of the brain tissue itself as in brain oedema or increased cerebral blood volume.
2 Extra volume added to the intracranial cavity as in tumours or haematomas.
Where an extra volume is added to the intracranial cavity this has to be at the expense of the normal contents. To start with the cerebrospinal fluid is squeezed out, we find that the ventricles become compressed and displaced. There will be paucity of subarachnoid spaces and the basal cisterns become less discernible. Once a state is reached where no more CSF could be expulsed, a change in the cerebral blood flow occurs. As mentioned cerebral blood perfusion is related to intracranial pressure. With the rise of intracranial pressure there is diminished cerebral blood flow and more space is provided for the extra volume. However a state would be reached where any further decrease in cerebral blood flow would lead to cerebral ischaemia. In this situation the brain itself starts to herniate through the hiatus of the tentorium and foramen magnum. At this stage the patient’s condition is precarious and needs urgent action to reduce the intracranial pressure.

The Correct Answer is B
Definition of Dementia
Acquired decline in memory and in at least one other cognitive function (e.g., language, visual spatial, executive) sufficient to affect daily life in an alert person.
Dementia is a broad category of disorders that is broken down into subgroups based on the presumed etiology. Alzheimer's disease, a neurodegenerative brain disease, is the most common cause of dementia.
The cause of nerve cell death in Alzheimer’s disease is unknown. Inheritance plays some role:

The Correct Answer is C
Most strokes involve the middle cerebral artery and the symptoms of middle cerebral artery stroke include hemiparesis, hemisensory loss, aphasia, and hemineglect. The regions of the brain responsible for being alert are not affected.
At least 25% of stroke patients experience aphasia, or problems understanding or using language. Some lose the ability to speak, while others lose the ability to write, and some lose the ability to understand written or spoken language.
Broca’s Apahsia denotes a lost ability or difficulty in expressing thoughts in words or writing, often resulting in grammatically incorrect communication.

The Correct Answer is C
Embolic stroke refers to a situation in which a clot is formed in an artery outside the brain and subsequently travels to and lodges in the brain. Risk factors for embolic stroke are atrial fibrillation, myocardial infarction, and heart valve abnormalities.
Tags: MCQ, Neurology, Embolic Stroke

The Correct Answer is B
Concussion is a physical injury to the brain that causes a disruption of normal functioning just like any other physical injury disrupts normal functioning.
Brain injury can be viewed along a continuum that incorporates concussion, mild brain injury, moderate brain injury and severe brain injury. Each type of brain injury varies depending upon: 1) whether the person was unconscious, 2) how long he/she was unconscious, 3) the length of their amnesia, 4) the resulting cognitive, behavioral and physical problems and 5) the recovery.

Why does cortical bone produce no signal on Magnetic Resonance Imaging?
a. signal production depends on the absence of significant pathology
b. osteoid contains no free hydrogen
c. mineralized bone contains no free hydrogen
d. bone marrow contains no free hydrogen
e. articular cartilage contains no free hydrogen
Answer
Tags: MCQ, Radiology, MRI, Magnetic Resonance Imaging

A primary tumor arises in the medullary cavity of the cortex of the tibia. It fills the tibial diaphysis, but does not erode the cortex significantly. If the tumor is less radio-dense than skeletal muscle but more radiodense than fat, what will be seen on the X-ray?
a. a permeative lesion with indistinct borders
b. a geographically circumscribed lesion with perilesional sclerosis
c. a circumscribed lesion without sclerosis and a sharp transition zone

Which of these produces the least dense image radiographically?
a. inflated lungs
b. subcutaneous fat
c. rectus femoris muscle
d. bone
e. diamond from an engagement ring
Answer
Tags: MCQ, Radiology, Radiography

The correct Answer is C
Bowel infarction results from ischemia of the intestines, caused either by mechanical obstruction to blood flow (eg, arterial thrombosis or embolism from the heart, volvulus, stricture) or by reduced perfusion (eg, cardiac failure, shock).
Transmural infarction (all layers of the gut wall) usually follows mechanical obstruction to blood flow.
Occlusion of the origin of any of the three main arterial supplies (Coeliac, Superior Mesenteric, Inferior Mesenteric) will lead to transmural infarction.

Regarding venous thromboembolic disease,
a. Deep venous thrombosis and pulmonary emboli cannot be diagnosed using MRI.
b. D-dimer assays have a high positive predictive value in suspected venous thromboembolic disease.
c. Duplex ultrasound is highly sensitive and specific investigation for symptomatic proximal leg deep venous thrombosis.
d. The more distal the leg venous thrombosis, the more risk for pulmonary embolism.
e. The dose of VQ (ventilation perfusion) scan is more than that for a CTPA (CT pulmonary angiogram).
Answer
Tags: MCQ, Radiology, thromboembolism

Regarding thalassaemia,
a. Skeletal changes are unusual before 6 months of age.
b. 'Hair-on-end' skull appearance is characteristic for thalassaemia.
c. Ethmoid air cells are usually present.
d. Earliest changes are seen in the hand/feet bones.
e. MRI is sensitive in the early diagnosis of chelator toxicity in the skeleton
Answer
Tags: MCQ, Radiology, Thalassaemia, Thalassemia, thallesemia

Regarding the injuries of the knee joint,
a. In pivot shift injury, the PCL is commonly injured.
b. Dashboard injury commonly results in the disruption of the ACL.
c. In lateral patellar dislocation, the oedema is seen in the inferolateral patella and the anterior aspect of the lateral femoral condyle.
d. In lateral patellar dislocation, the lateral patello-femoral ligament may be injured.
e. 'Kissing contusions' on the anterior aspects of the femur and tibia are seen in hyperextension injury.
Answer
Tags: MCQ, Radiology, Knee Injury

Regarding imaging of the gestational trophoblastic neoplasia (GTN),
Complete hydatidiform moles are more premalignant than the Partial hydatidiform moles.GTNs are almost always curable.In GTNs, the uterine artery pulsatility index (PI) has been shown to predict methotrexate resistance.Metastases typically occur in the peritoneum.Uterine artery embolization (UAE) has a proven therapeutic effect in the management of post GTN vascular malformations.Answer
Tags: MCQ, Radiology, Gestational Trophoblastic Neoplasia

Regarding the benign bone tumours of the ribs,
1. Enchondroma (EC) are the most common benging tumours of the ribs.
2. Fibdrous dysplasias (FD) are usually seen in the posterior or lateral aspects of the ribs.
3. MRI is not sensitive in diagnosing the non-calcified cartilage of enchondroma.
4. In osteochondromas (OC), cartilage cap of less than 10mm is highly suspicious for malignant transformation.
5. Aneurysmal bone cysts (ABC) are commonly seen in the anterior aspect of the ribs.
Answer
Tags: MCQ, Radiology, Ribs, Tumors

Regarding central neurocytoma (CN) true is
a. CN are typically located within the fourth ventricle.
b. Light microscopic appearance is similar to meningioma.
c. Most of the CNs present after 60 years of age.
d. The attachment to the lateral wall of the lateral ventricle is charactersitic for CN.
e. Intratumoral calcification is common.
Answer
Tags: MCQ, Radiology, Neurocytoma

Regarding endometrial carcinoma,
a. CT is less accurate than endovaginal ultrasound in the diagnosis of myometrial invasion.
b. Zonal uterine anatomy is best seen on the T1WI.
c. Endometrial carcinoma is typically of low signal on the T2WI.
d. Endometrial carcinoma is of high signal compared to cervical stroma on the T2WI.
e. Lung is the most common site of distant metastasis
Answer
Tags: MCQ, Radiology, Endometrial Cancer

Regarding the endometrial carcinoma,
a. In Europe, endometrial carcinoma is second most common gynaecological malignancy, following cervical carcinoma.
b. In the UK, most of the endometrial carcinomas present late
c. FIGO Staging is based on MRI the of the pelvis and CT scan of the abdomen.
d. Endometrial carcinoma accounts for approximately 10% of postmenopausal bleeding
e. The incidence of nodal metastasis is 3% with deep myometrial invasion (stage IC).
Answer
Tags: MCQ, Radiology, Endometrial Cancer

Regarding posterolateral corner injuries of the knee all are true except
a. Posterolateral corner injuries are less common than medial knee injuries
b. Arcuate fracture is a strong indicator of posterior cruciate ligament tear
c. Segond fracture is a strong indicator of posterior cruciate ligament tear
d. Popliteus myotendinous injury is usually associated with other posterolateral corner injuries
e. Lateral collateral ligament injury is a part of posterolateral corner injuries
Answer
Tags: MCQ, Radiology, Knee Injuries

Regarding traumtic diaphragmatic rupture (TDI),
A. TDIs most commonly occur after penetrating trauma
B. Left diaphragm is less commonly ruptured than the right
C. About 50% of TDI are diagnosed acutely
D. The most commonly herniated organ is spleen
E. 'Dependent viscera sign' is a very sensitive CT sign in the diagnosis of TDI
Answer
Tags: MCQ, Radiology, Diaphragm, Blunt Trauma Abdomen

Regarding Angiomyolipomas (AML),
A. AMLs associated with tuberous sclerosis are more common than sporadic ones
B. Males are more commonly affected than Females in both sporadic type and in those with tuberous sclerosis
C. AMLs are associated with neurofibromatosis
D. The most common complication is malignant transformation
E. AMLs are not suitable for embolization
Answer
Tags: MCQ, Radiology, Angiomyolipomas

Regarding epidermoid cysts of the testis,
A. Epidermoid cysts are one of the common cysts of the testis
B. Epidermoid cysts are commonly associated infertility
C. Epidermoid cysts are commonly multiple
D. The ultrasonic appearances are characteristic for epidermoid cysts
E. On Gd administration, epidermoid cysts usually enhance
Answer
Tags: MCQ, Radiology, Testis, USG, Epidermoid cyst

Regarding splenic injury,all are true except
A. Spleen is the most commonly injured abdominal organ in blunt trauma
B. 40% of rib fractures are associated with splenic injuries
C. 40% of splenic injuries are associated with rib fractures
D. Splenic lacerations are seen as an area of low attenuation on contrast enhanced CT scan
E. Most of the splenic injuries are managed conservatively
Answer
Tags: MCQ, Radiology, splenic Trauma, Spleen

Regarding blunt injury of the kidney,
A. Nearly 50% of renal injuries are treated surgically
B. Presence of hematuria is an idication of serioud renal injury
C. Absence of hematuria excludes renal injury
D. Cortical rim sign on CT scan suggests devascularization
E. Hypertension is an early complication of renal trauma
Answer
Tags: MCQ, Radiology, Renal Trauma

Regarding neuroinfections in HIV/AIDS correct is
A. HIV encephalitis preferentially shows white matter changes in the centrum semiovale
B. CMV encephalitis rarely involves brain stem and periventricular white matter
C. CMV encephalitis typically heals by periventricular calcifications
D. Cryptococcus usually causes ring enhancing lesions in the basal ganglia
E. PML (progressive multifocal leucoencephalopathy) typically shows mass effect and contrast enhancement
Answer
Tags: MCQ, Radiology, HIV Encephalitis