ENT1. Paracusis is seen in
a. otosclerosis,
b. Otogenic deafness
c. CSOM
d. Meniere’s disease
2. Nasopharyngeal Angiofibroma is most commonly seen in
a. Young female,
b. Elderly female,
c. Infants,
d. Young boy.
3. betahistine is given in’
a. Otosclerosis,
b. Meniere’s disease,
c. CSOM,
d. ASOM
4. Power of microscope used in laryngeal surgery is
a. 200mm,
b. 400mm,
c. 500mm,
d. 300mm.
5. Cholesteatoma is most commonly found in
a. Tubotympanic CSOM,
b. Atticoantral CSOM,
c. Serous otitis media,
d. Foreign body in ear.
6. Caldwell luc operation is done in
a. Frontal sinus,
b. Maxillary sinus,
c. Ethmoid,
d. Sphenoid sinus.
7.Ludwig’s angina is seen in
a. Submandibular region,
b. Sublingual region,
c. submental region,
d. Deep neck space.
8. Myiasis is
a. Maggots is nose,
b. Maggots in sinus,
c. Maggots in mouth,
d. None of the above.
9. Middle ear pressure is measured by
a. Tuning fork,
b. Pure tone audiometry,
c. Electrocochleography,
d. Impedance Audiometry.
10. Tumor which is friable and bleeds on touch is
a. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma,
b. Maxillary antrum tumor,
c. Rhinosporidosis,
d. Angiofibroma.
11. Male voice does not break at puberty it is called as
a. Pubophonia,
b. Spastic dysphonia,
c. Esophageal voice,
d. Dysphonia plica ventricularis
12. True regarding vocal cord is
a. Rima glottis is diamond shape during phonation,
b. Partial lesion of recurrent laryngeal nerve causes adduction of vocal cord,
c. Posterior cricoarytenoid causes adduction of vocal cords,
d. Lateral cricoarytenoid causes abduction of vocal cords.
Eye1. Mode of transmission of congenital glaucoma is
a. Autosomal recessive,
b. Autosomal document,
c. X- Linked recessive,
d. X- Linked dominant.
2. Drug of choice in angular conjunctivitis is
a. Oxytetracycline,
b. Chlormycetin,
c. Ciprofloxacin,
d. Gentamycin
3. Size of pupil in iridocyclitis is
a. Oval and large,
b. Small and pinpoint,
c. Small and irregular,
d. None of above.
4. Which of the following drug is contraindication in closed angle glaucoma
a. Atropine,
b. Pilocarpine,
c. Tropicamide,
d. Acetazolamide.
5. Type of discharge in spring catarrh is
a. Ropy white discharge,
b. Purulent discharge,
c. Mucopurulent discharge,
d. Orange fluorescent discharge.
6. Second sight is seen in
a. Lental sclerosis,
b. Morgagnian,
c. Nuclear cataract,
d. Cortical cataract.
7. Rosette cataract is most commonly seen in
a. Thromine deficiency,
b. Concussion injury,
c. Diabetes,
d. Hypertension.
8. Diabetic retinopathy A/E
a. Visual symptoms occur early,
b. Severity depends on duration,
c. regular control of sugar helps in control,
d. None
Pediatrics1. 10 year old child presents with cough fever diarrhea, splenomegaly since 10 days, abdominal distension is suffering form
a. Typhoid,
b. Malaria,
c. Infection,
d. Tuberculosis
2. The rates of upper and lower body segment becomes equal at
a. 4 years,
b. 5 years,
c. 6-years,
d. 7 years.
3. Increase in alpha fetoprotein is seen in all except
a. Downs syndrome,
b. Prematurity,
c. Embryonal cell carcinoma,
d. Yolk sac tumor.
4. Cleft palate is seen in
a. Downs syndrome,
b. Edward syndrome,
c. Patau syndrome,
d. Klienfelter’s syndrome.
5. When does the child starts riding tricycle
a. 4 years,
b. 3 years,
c. 2years,
d. 5 years.
6. Breath holding spell in child which of the following should be done
a. Call the doctor and see him,
b. Ignore the child,
c. Give diazepam,
d. Take an ECG.
7. Which of the following is true about Mongolian spots
a.it is common in Mongol race in South East Asia
b.it regresses by itself by one year
c.it is associated with Down's syndrome
d.treated withsteroids
8. Harlequin skin change is
a. A form of icthyosis,
b. Early sepsis,
c. Does not matter,
d. fatal
9. Down’s syndrome is due to
a. Triploidy,
b. Polyploidy,
c. tetraploidy,
d. Aneuploidy.
Medicine1. A patient on prolonged therapy for lymphoma has developed immunosuppression following can cause pulmonary affection except
a. CMV,
b. EBV,
c. Good Pasteur’s disease,
d. Drug induced infiltrate
2. In HIV, person develops AIDS when CD4 + count is
a. Less than 400,
b. less than 200,
c. 50-100,
d. 500
3. Apathetic hyperthyroidism is characterized by all except:
a. Elderly people are affected,
b. Insidious in onset,
c. It is familial disorder,
d. Proximal myopathy, cardiomyopathy also occurs.
4. which of the following is X-linked recessive disorder
a. Huntington’s chorea,
b. Duchenne muscular dystrophy,
c. Von willebrand’s disease,
d. Polycystic kidney.
5. Nitric oxide acts by
a. Stimulating Cox-2,
b. Inhibiting Cox-1,
c. Phospholipase A2,
d. Lipooxygenase pathway.
6. About lepromatous leprosy true is all except
a. Indefinate margins are there,
b. central clearing is not present,
c. raised edges are seen,
d. Sensation is lost late.
7. A patient presents with short stature and no barr body in cytology, all of the following are possible except
a. Turners syndrome,
b. testicular feminisation,
c. Klienfelters syndrome,
d. None of the above.
8. In vitamin B6 dependent anemia the RBC are
a. Microcytic hypochromic,
b. Macrocytic,
c. Spherocytic,
d. Elliptocytic
9. Regarding megalablastic anemia all are true except
a. Extramedullary hemolysis occurs,
b. Intramedullary hemolysis occurs,
c. Thrombocytes are enlarged,
d. Gastric cellular atypia occurs.
10. Chronic subdural hematoma
a. Slow absorption of csf into the clot,
b. Secondarily infected,
c. Bleeding into tuberculoma,
d. Bleeding of middle meningeal artery.
11. A COPD patient has pH pf 6.5, PaCo2 is 60 mmHg and Pao2 is 44mm Mg is suffering from:
a. Respiratory acidosis,
b. respiratory alkalosis,
c. Metabolic acidosis,
d. Metabolic alkalosis.
12. When iodine is given, it causes regression of thyroxine is called wolf chaikoff effect it is used in
a. Lugol’s iodine is used before operation in hyperthyroidism,
b. Iodine following surgery,
c. iodine in salt,
d. None of the above.
13. Regarding acute severe asthma all are true except
a. Pulses paradoxus,
b. Tachypnea,
c. Tachycardia,
d. Decreased Pa Co2 level.
14. Which of the following is given for prophylaxis of Rheumatic fever.
a. Benzyl penicillin,
b. Benzathine penicillin,
c. Procaine penicillin,
d. Any of the above.
15. Vaccination not given in pregnancy is
a. Rubella,
b. Hepatitis
B, c. tetanus,
d. Typhoid
16. Most common nosocomial infection is
a. UTI,
b. respiratory,
c. skin,
d. Gastrointestinal
17. HDV is
a. Complete virus,
b. Incomplete virus,
c. partial virus,
d. Total virus.
18.Which of the following statements is true
a.90% duodenal ulcers are associated with H.pylori
b.90% gastric ulcers are associated with H.pylori
c.10% gastric ulcers are associated with H.pylori
d.10%duodenal ulcers are associated with H.pylori
19. In a patient with heart rate of 40/minute P wave is absent and QRS complex is normal probably patient must be having
a. Atrial fibrillation,
b. Incomplete AV block,
c. Ectopic pacemaker,
d. Sinus arrythmia.
20. Regarding toxoplasmosis all are true except
a. 50% of infants are infected in first trimester,
b. 65% fetus involved in 3rd trimester,
c. Perinatal mortality rate is 5-10%,
d. IgM is seen in 80% of mothers.
21. In CML all are given except
a. Melphalan,
b. Busulphan,
c. Interferon,
d. Hydroxyurea
22. Treatment of choice for pneumocystis carinii infection is
a. Cotrimazole,
b. Rifampin,
c. Trimethoprim only,
d. Interferon Alpha
23. Indicators of internal malignancy are all except
a. Acanthosis nigricans,
b. Trosseau’s sign,
c. Trosier’s node,
d. Spider Angiomas.
Surgery1. Best way to investigate Hemobilia is
a. PTCA,
b. Angiography,
c. USG,
d. ERCP
2. All of the following predispose to cholangiocarcinoma except
a. Previous Cholecystectomy,
b. Sclerosing cholangitis,
c. Choledochal cyst,
d. Inflammatory bowel disease.
3. Regarding hirschsprung’s disease all are true except
a. Affected segment will be dilated,
b. Auerbach’s and meissner’s plexus are absent,
c. Entire colon is rarely involved,
d. More common in females.
4. Which of the following is most common complication after appendicectomy
a. Wound infection,
b. Fecal fistula,
c. Subphrenic abcess,
d. Portal pyemia
5. Regarding Hutchison freckle which of the following is true
a. Change lentigo maligna into malignant melanoma,
b. Amelanotic,
c. Nodular,
d. Acral lentiginous.
6. Which of the following is commonly used solution as preservative during renal transplantation.
a. University of Wisconsin solution (UAW),
b. ringer Lacate,
c. Dextrose 5%,
d. Formalin.
7. Double bubble sign is seen in
a. Esophageal carcinoma,
b. Jejunal atresia,
c. Duodenal atresia,
d, Omphalocele.
8. After influenza infection a lady developed painful thyroid swelling, diagnosis is
a. Reidle’s thyroiditis,
b. Subacute granulomatous thyroiditis,
c. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis,
d. Graves disease.
9. Most common benign lesion ion esophagus is’
a. Leiomyoma,
b. Neurofibroma,
c. Lipoma,
d. Hemangioma.
10. Which is the most dangerous complication of LGV
a. Rectal stricture,
b. Uretheral structure,
c. Pelvic Abscess,
d. Inguinal swelling.
11. Regarding crohn’s disease all are true
a. Transmural,
b. Fistula are common,
c. Premalignant lesion,
d. Mycobacterium flavum is the cause.
12. All of the following is associated with gastric carcinoma except.
a. Previous surgery,
b. Group A blood group,
c. Atrophic gastritis,
d. Gastric ulcer.
13. Normal portal pressure is
a. 7-10mm of the saline,
b. 7-10mm of Hg,
c. 5-7mm Hg,
d. 20-30mm Hg.
14. Desmoid tumor is
a. Tumor of anterior abdominal wall,
b. Primary tumor of umblicus,
c. Type of sarcoma,
d. Metastasis to umbilicus from primary in abdomen.
15. Dequervain’s thyroiditis true is all except
a. Raised Esr,
b. Spontaneous resolution,
c. Increased iodine uptake.
D. Follows viral infection.
16. Proptosis is seen mainly in
a. Thyroglossal cyst,
b. orbital tumors,
c. Myxedema,
d. Thyrotoxicosis.
17. Synergistic gangrene is caused by
a. Anaerobic streptococcus and staphylococci infection,
b. Microaerophilic staphylococci,
c. Closotridium botulinism,
d. All of the above.
18. Taussig’s operation is
1.Extraperitoneal lymphadenectomy,
b. Intraperitoneal lymphadenectomy,
c. Modified neck node dissection,
d. Pelvic extenteration
19. Meleny’s ulcer is
a. Due to synergistic action of staphylococci and streptococci,
b. Known to occur in burns,
c. Occurs in head injury,
d. Self resolving condition of ankle.
20. Which of the following is premalignant condition
a. Condyloma acuminata,
b. Atypical endometrial hyperplasia,
c. cervical polyp,
d. Fordyce spots.
Orthopedics1. March fracture is seen in
a. 2nd metatarsal,
b. metacarpals,
c. 3rd metacarpals,
d. 5th metatarsal.
2. Loosers zone is seen in
a. Osteopetrosis,
b. Osteomalacia,
c. Osteoarthritis,
d. osteoporosis.
3. Hangman’s fracture is
a. Spondylolisthesis of C2 over C3 ,
b. Fracture of odontoid process,
c. Fracture of transverse process,
d. Dislocation of C5.
4. Bunion is
a. Fluid filled bursa over bony prominence,
b. Benign tumour of sensational bones,
c. Communication between radial and ulnar bursae,
d. Cyst between radical and ulnar bursae.
5. Osteochondroma develops into
a. Chondrosarcoma,
b. Osteosacroma,
c. Exostosis,
d. Osteoma.
6. Test for dequervain’s tenosynovitis is
a. Frankelstein test,
b. Phalen’s test,
c. Tinel’s sign,
d. Apley grinding test.
7. Regarding Rheumatoid arthritis all are true except.
a. Morning stiffness of less than 15 minutes,
b. Small joints of hand are involved,
c. More then 3 joints are involved,
d. Symmetrical involvement of joints.
8. Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystals are seen in
a. Gout,
b. Pseudogout,
c. Arthritis,
d. Osteomalacia.
9. Regarding hip joint which of the following is true.
a. Flexor retinaculum attaches the head of femur to hip bone,
b. After fracture neck of femur, psoas muscle acts lateral rotator of femur,
c. Abductor muscles are supplied by inferior gluteal nerve,
d. Capsule of hip joint is attached to intertrochantric ridge.
Obstetrics and Gynecology1. Grayish white frothy discharge per vaginum is seen in
a. Candida,
b. Gardenella vaginalis,
c. Trichomonas,
d. All of the above.
2. Pregnant woman is anemic when Hb is less than
a. 9gm%,
b. 10gm%,
c. 11gm%,
d. 12gm%.
3. Endometrial carcinoma with involved paraaortic lymph node is staged as: -
a. IIIb,
b. IIIc,
c. IVa,
d. IVa.
4. Embryonic period is after conception to
a. 8 weeks,
b. 10 weeks,
c. 12 weeks,
d. 72 hours.
5. Treatment of choice for stress incontinence is
a.Bursch operation,
b. Manchester operation,
c. Gallium Operation,
d. Shirodkar sling.
6. Call exner bodies are seen in
a. Granulosa cell tumor,
b. Dysgerminoma,
c. Theca cell tumor,
d. Endodermal sinus tumor.
7. Litzmans obliquity is
a. Nagelle pelvis,
b. Normal synclitism,
c. Anterior synclitism,
d. Posterior asynclitism.
8. In the left anterior oblique breech presentation diameter of engagement of head is
a. Left lateral oblique,
b. Right anterior oblique,
c. Occipito transverse,
d. Anterior position.
9. SLE in pregnancy true in all except
a. Causes recurrent abortion,
b. Lupus anticoagulant in an anticoagulant in vitro,
c. Causes eclampsia,
d. Corticosteroids are contraindicated.
10. True about cephalhematoma is
a. Incompressible and soft,
b. Does not cross the suture line,
c. Present at birth,
d. Surgery is required.
11. Most common presentation of genitourinary TB is
a. Oligomenorrhea,
b. Menorrhagia,
c. Secondary Amenmorrhea,
d. Primary dysmenorrhea.
12. Menopausal symptoms are due to lack of
a. LH,
b. FSH,
c. Estrogen,
d. Progesterone.
13. Which of the following does not cross placenta
a. heparin,
b. Warfarin,
c. Tetracycline,
d. Insulin.
14. Mifepristone in MTP acts by
a. Agonist of progesterone,
b. Agonist of estrogen,
c. Antagonist of progesterone,
d. Antagonist of estrogen.
15. AFP can be used to determine all except
a. Downs syndrome,
b. IUGR,
c. Preterm infant,
d. Neural tube defects.
16. Suckling releases which hormone from pituitary
a. Prolactin,
b. Oxytocin,
c. Somatostatin,
d. Somatomedin
Skin1. Silvery scales on erythematous bone is seen in
a. Pemphigus,
b. Pityriasis versicolor,
c. Psoriasis,
d. Erythema nodosum.
2. Ultra violet light most commonly effects
a. Skin,
b. Liver,
c. Lung,
d. Kidney.
3. Norwegian scabies is most seen in
a. Immunocompromized,
b. Infants,
c. Elderly,
d. Old age.
4. Tinea infection of nail is treated by
a. Griseofulvin and fluconazole,
b. Miconazole,
c. Whitfields ointment.
Anaesthesia1. Scholine is
a. Depolarising muscle relaxant causing prolonged relaxation,
b. Is competitive muscle relaxant,
c. Competitive partial agonist,
d. Competetive agonist.
2. All of the following is true regarding halothane except: -
a. Causes bronchospasm,
b. Sensitisizes centers to adrenaline,
c. Potentiate competitive neuromuscular blockers,
d. Non inflammable volatile liquid.
3. Saddle block anaesthesia true is
a. Epidural anaesthesia of sacral region,
b. Hyperbaric solution injected in spinal canal,
c. Anesthetic moves up in spinal canal,
d. Inferior gluteal nerve block.
4. Caudal anaesthesia is
a. Anesthetic injection in coccygeal canal,
b. For perineal and rectal surgery,
c. Injection into umbilical vein,
d. Same as epidural.
5. Post spinal anaesthesia headache is due to
a. Increase in amount of CSF,
b. Leakage of CSF,
c. Bleeding of epidural veins,
d. Tonsillar herniation.
Radiology
1. Cardiac hypertrophy is diagnosed by
a. Chest X-ray,
b. Cardiac biopsy (histology of left ventricle),
c. Left ventricular thickness,
d. Weighing the heart.
2. Pseudoparalysis rosary, frenkel’s line, pencil thin cortex on X-ray is
a. Vitamin C deficiency,
b. Vitamin D deficiency,
c. Vitamin A deficiency,
d. Fatty acid deficiency.
The Correct Option is D
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