Pharmacology MCQ Answer 72

The correct answer is D.

The patient has acute prostatitis, which is characterized by fever, chills, and dysuria, with a swollen, extremely tender prostate on rectal exam. The urine Gram's stain and culture will generally be positive. The treatment regimen for this bacterial infection is typically a 21-day course of ampicillin, a fluoroquinolone, or sulfamethoxazole/trimethoprim (SMX-TMP). G-6-PD deficiency is an X-linked recessive disorder affecting 10% to 15% of American black males. The medications most commonly associated with the induction of hemolytic anemia in deficient patients are sulfonamides, nitrofurantoin, dapsone, primaquine, and quinine. The sulfamethoxazole in the SMX-TMP combination is a sulfonamide, and can produce hemolytic anemia in patients with G-6-PD deficiency.


Ampicillin (choice A) is a broad-spectrum penicillin antibiotic commonly used in the treatment of infections in the genitourinary, respiratory, or GI tracts, as well as in the skin and soft tissues.

Cefaclor (choice B) is a second-generation cephalosporin indicated for a variety of bacterial infections, including those of the respiratory and GI tracts.

Ciprofloxacin (choice C) is a fluoroquinolone commonly used in the treatment of serious infections caused by gram-negative organisms.

Tetracycline (choice E) is most commonly used in the treatment of acne vulgaris and gonococcal infections.

Category: Pharmacology MCQs