21 Neurosurgery MCQs

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A 54-year-old patient with a history of successful renal transplantation is hospitalized with a diverticular abscess. Surgical exploration and drainage of the abscess with a Hartmann’s procedure is eventually required. Although the patient’s septic appearance resolves, the patient complains of severe headache and altered mental status is observed. A grand mal seizure follows. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true concerning this patient’s management?
    Bacterial meningitis and brain abscess: Medicine
  1. An intracranial epidural abscess is the likely diagnosis
  2. A bacterial brain abscess secondary to hematogenous spread from the pericolonic infection is the likely diagnosis
  3. The abscess expected in this case is usually solitary
  4. Appropriate parenteral antibiotic treatment should be sufficient in this high risk patient.
  5. Despite aggressive surgical and medical management, mortality rates associated in this patient may exceed 30%

21 Neurosurgery MCQs Answers

Category: Surgery MCQs

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