

A 45-year-old man with a history of previous right hemicolectomy for colon cancer presents with colicky abdominal pain which has become constant over the last few hours. He has marked abdominal distension and has had only minimal vomiting of a feculent material. His abdomen is diffusely tender. Abdominal x-ray shows multiple air fluid levels with dilatation of some loops to greater than 3 cm in diameter. The following statement(s) is/are true concerning the possible etiology of bowel obstruction.
Simple obstruction secondary to an adhesion is most likely to resolve nonoperatively
It is most likely that the patient’s obstruction is secondary to recurrent malignancy
A history of colon cancer makes carcinomatosis the most likely diagnosis
Lower abdominal procedures are more likely to result in obstructive adhesions than are upper abdominal procedures
Category:
Gastroenterology MCQs
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