MCQ Surgery 25

A 32-year-old, blood type A positive male receives a kidney transplant from a blood type B positive female donor with whom he had a 6-antigen HLA match. Once the kidney is anastomosed to the man's vasculature, the transplant team immediately begins to observe swelling and interstitial hemorrhage. After the surgery, the patient developed fever and leukocytosis and produced no urine. Which of the following is the most likely explanation?

A. Acute rejection due to antibody-mediated immunity
B. Acute rejection due to cell-mediated immunity
C. Chronic rejection due to cell-mediated immunity to minor HLA antigen
D. Hyperacute rejection due to lymphocyte and macrophage infiltration
E. Hyperacute rejection due to preformed ABO blood group antibodies

Answer

Category: Surgery MCQs