MCQ Orthopedics 15

on with 0 comments



A 32-year-old woman presents with left inguinal and groin pain of 1 week duration that is worse with weightbearing and ambulation. Physical examination reveals full range of motion of the left hip. She walks with a limp. She had previously been treated with mechlorethamine, vincristine, procarbazine, and prednisone therapy for Hodgkin's disease. An anteroposterior film of the pelvis demonstrates no osseous abnormality. Which of the following tests would be most useful in making the diagnosis?

A. Serum rheumatoid factor
B. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
C. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the left hip
D. Arthrogram of the left hip
E. Blood alcohol level

Answer

Tags: , ,

Category: Orthopedics MCQs

POST COMMENT

0 comments:

Post a Comment

Is there something you wish to add? Have something to say? Feel free to leave a comment.

Newer Post
Older Post
Subscribe to: Post Comments (Atom)