A 39-year-old woman, gravida 4, para 3, comes to the physician for a prenatal visit. Her last menstrual period was 8 weeks ago. She has had no abdominal pain or vaginal bleeding. She has no medical problems. Examination is unremarkable except for an 8-week sized, nontender uterus. Prenatal labs are sent. The rapid plasma reagin (RPR) test comes back as positive and a confirmatory microhemagglutination assay for antibodies to Treponema pallidum (MHA-TP) test also comes back as positive. Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy?
A. Erythromycin
B. Levofloxacin
C. Metronidazole
D. Penicillin
E. Tetracycline
AnswerTags:
MCQ, Obstetrics, Antenatal Infections
Category:
Obstetrics MCQs
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