A 54-year-old white man is admitted to the hospital because of abdominal pain and "black stools." He has not seen a doctor in years. He smokes two packs of cigarettes daily. Physical exam reveals poor dentition, normal cardiovascular exam, moderate splenomegaly with mild epigastric and left upper quadrant tenderness, and a guaiac stool test positive for occult blood.
Laboratory values reveal a hemoglobin of 9.5 g/dL, hematocrit of 29%, WBC count of 14,500/μL with a fairly normal differential, a platelet count of 540,000/μL, and a ferritin level of 4 μg/L. Serum vitamin B12 levels are elevated.
A bone marrow exam shows hypercellularity without other specific findings, and chromosomes are reported as normal. Endoscopy reveals a gastric ulcer and biopsies are negative for malignancy but positive for Helicobacter pylori infection. Appropriate management at this stage should be
A. Splenectomy
B Transfusion of two units of packed RBCs
C. Observation
D. Antibiotic treatment for the H. pylori infection and iron supplementation for the iron deficiency anemia
E. Antibiotic treatment for the H. pylori infection
AnswerTags:
MCQ, Hematology, Polycythemia
Category:
Hematology MCQs
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2 comments:
Answer is D
This patient absolutely has anemia. It is neither pernicious nor megaloblastic. H.Pylori investigates for the cause of weak iron absorption. Ferritin is abnormal, and logically BM will compensate as there is anemia. Investigations show that he has IDA and the best is to remove H.pylori and to supply Iron (answer is D).
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