Gynecology MCQ 013
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A 38-year-old woman, gravida 4, para 4, comes to the physician 8 days after a cesarean delivery complaining of redness and pain at the leftmost aspect of her incision. Her cesarean delivery was performed secondary to a non-reassuring fetal heart rate tracing. She was feeling well after the operation until 4 days ago, when she developed pain and redness around her incision. Her temperature is 37 C (98.6 F), blood pressure is 118/78 mm Hg, pulse is 88/min, and respirations are 12/min. There is marked ery
thema and induration around the incision. At the left margin of the incision there is a fluctuant mass. Which of the following is most appropriate next step in management?A. Expectant management
B. Oral antibiotics only
C. IV antibiotics only
D. Incision and drainage
E. Laparotomy
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Category: Gynecology MCQs
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