Gynecology MCQ 006

A 16-year-old sexually active nulliparous white female complains of pelvic pain and vaginal discharge. On examination she is found to have a temperature of 39.8° C (102.0° F), pain with movement of the cervix, and tenderness and a mass in the right adnexa.

According to CDC guidelines, which one of the following treatments would be appropriate?

A) Outpatient treatment with penicillin G procaine (Wycillin) intramuscularly; probenecid (Benemid) orally; plus doxycycline (Vibramycin) orally for 14 days and reexamination in 3 days

B) Outpatient treatment with ceftriaxone (Rocephin) intramuscularly; probenecid orally; plus doxycycline twice a day for 14 days and reexamination in 1 week

C) Outpatient treatment with cefoxitin (Mefoxin) intramuscularly; plus doxycycline twice a day for 14 days and reexamination in 10 days

D) Hospitalization for treatment with cefoxitin intravenously and doxycycline orally or intravenously, then doxycycline orally twice a day to complete 14 days of treatment

E) Metronidazole (Flagyl) 2 grams orally as a single dose and Pap smear

Answer

Category: Gynecology MCQs