Gynecology MCQ 004

You diagnose Trichomonas vaginitis in a 25-year-old white female, and treat her and her partner with metronidazole (Flagyl), 2 g in a single dose. She returns 1 week later and is still symptomatic, and a saline wet prep again shows Trichomonas.

Which one of the following is the most appropriate treatment at this time?

A) Metronidazole gel 0.75% (Metro Gel) intravaginally for 5 days
B) Metronidazole, 2 g orally, plus metronidazole gel 0.75 % intravaginally for 5 days
C) Metronidazole, 500 mg orally twice a day for 7 days
D) Clindamycin cream (Cleocin) 2 % intra vaginally for 7 days
E) Sulfadiazine (Microsulfon), 4 g orally in a single dose, plus pyrimethamine (Daraprim), 200 mg orally in a single dose

Answer

Category: Gynecology MCQs