MCQ Pediatrics 18

A 6-year-old white male is brought to your office with a 2 month history of persistent, painless swelling in his left groin. Neither the child nor his parents can remember any illness or injury associated with the onset of this condition. The only significant medical history is a diagnosis of attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder, treated with methylphenidate (Ritalin). Findings are normal on physical examination, except for enlarged lymph nodes in the left inguinal area. You note one node which is about 3 cm x 3 cm and two which are approximately 1 cm x 2 cm. The left leg appears normal.

Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A) Cat-scratch disease
B) Hodgkin’s disease
C) Sarcoidosis
D) Lymphogranuloma venereum
E) Tularemia

Answer

Category: Pediatrics MCQs