Pharmacology1. Which of the following can be given with OCP
a. Mebendazole,
b. Amoxycillin,
c. Phenytoin,
d. Rifampin
2. Mode of action of vigabatrin is
a. Inhibitor of GABA transaminase increasing GABA conc,
b. Suppress Na+ current channels,
c. Inhibit T type Ca 2+ channel,
d. None
3. Mode of action of baclofen is
a. Act as GABA receptor agonist thro hyperpolarising neurons by increasing k+ conductance and altering ca2+ flux ,
b. Depolarise muscle by opening Na+ channel,
c. Both,
d. None
4. Moricizine used as antiarrhythmic causes: -
a. Prolongation of action potential,
b. Decrease action potential,
c. No change in action potential,
d. None of the above.
5. All of the following can be used against chloroquine resistant malaria except
a. Mefloquine,
b. Quinine,
c. Primaquine,
d. Halofantrine.
6. Ethanol elimination is a
a. Linear elimination,
b. Dose dependent,
c. Saturation type,
d. Fixed elimination
7. Prodrug used in prostatic carcinoma with antiandrogenic action is
a. Cyproterone,
b. Clomiphene,
c. Danazol,
d. Tamoxifen
8. Which of the following is not hepatotoxic
a. INH,
b.Rifampin,
c. Ethambutol,
d. Pyarizinamide.
9. Which of the following is a best drug to stop cisplatin induced vomiting
a. Ondensetron,
b. Cisapride,
d. Domperidone,
c. Metoclopramide
10. Drug of choice to be used in SVT with WPW is
a. Verapamil,
b. Amiodarone,
c. Lignocaine,
d. Digoxin
11. Dorazolamide is a
a. Topical carbonic anhydrase inhibitor,
b. Systemic carbonic anhydrase inhibitor,
c. Both,
d. None.
12. Organophosphorus poisoning acts by
a. Adrenergic action,
b. Cholinergic action,
c. Anticholinesterase action,
d. Pseudocholinesterase inhibitor.
13. Cocaine is
a. Vasodilator,
b. Vasoconstrictor and Hypertensive,
c. Vasodilator and bradycardia,
d. Vasodilation followed by vasoconstriction.
14. Caffeine is given along with ergotamine to cause
a. Increased absorption,
b. Toxicity,
c. No advantage,
d. For colouring.
15. Plasma concentration reflects the action in
a. Digoxin,
b. Hit and run drug,
c. Diuretic,
d. Lignocaine
16. Dopamine agonist is
a. Reserpine,
b. Metoclopramide,
c. Bromocriptine,
d. Haloperidol.
Pathology1. All of the following are due to congestion of blood except
a. brown induration of lung,
b. Strawberry gall bladder,
c. Nutmeg liver,
d. Sago spleen.
2. Poor prognostic factor is liver disease is
a. Bile lake,
b. Collagen formation,
c. Mallory hyaline body,
d. Councilman body.
3. Lymphatic spread is most common in
a. Rhabdomyosarcoma,
b. Dermatofibrosarcoma,
c. Liposarcoma,
d. Osteosarcoma.
4. Renal pathology in SLE is all except: -
a. Lipoid nephrosis,
b. Focal Proliferative,
c. Diffuse proliferation,
d. Diffuse membranous.
5. All are granulomatous except
a. Giardiasis,
b. Histoplasmosis,
c. Schistosomiasis,
d. Leprosy
6. CML is associated with
a. Philadelphia chromosome,
b. Persistent barr body,
c. San Francisco chromosome,
d. XXY.
7. Function of Kupfer cells is
a. Phagocytic,
b. Lytic,
c. Secretory,
d. Excretory
8. Radiation acts by all of these except
a. Autoimmunity,
b. Mutation,
c. Free radical,
d. DNA breakage.
9. Edema is caused by all except
a. Decrease protein in plasma,
b. Decrease protein in interstitial fluid,
c. Increased protein in plasma,
d. none of the above.
10. In fibrocystic disease of breast all are seen except
a. Inflammation,
b. Fibrosis,
c. Dilatation of ducts which appear cystic ,
d. Adenosis
11. Comedocarcinoma of breast
a. Synonym for tubular carcinoma,
b. Variant of paget’s disease of nipple,
c. Synonym of scirrhous carcinoma,
d. On cut section punctate areas of necrotic material is seen
Microbiology1. Heterophile antibody is seen in
a. Coomb’s test,
b. Casoni’s test,
c. Weil felix reaction,
d. Frei’s test
2. Test to detect echinococcus infection is
a. Napiers Aldehyde test,
b. Sabin Feldman dye test,
c. Casoni’s test,
d. Free’s test.
3. Dimorphic fungus is
a. Cryptococcus,
d. Aspergillus,
c. Histoplasma,
d. sporothrix
4. Characteristic feature of strongyloides infection is
a. Malabsorption,
b.Anemia,
c. Invades satiated muscle,
d. Intestinal obstruction.
5. Food poisoning is caused by all the following except
A.Vibrio Cholera
B. Salmonella
C. Staphylococci
D.Clostridium perfringens
6. Which of the following crosses placenta
a. Ig G,
b. Ig A.
c. Ig M,
d. Ig E.
7. Most effective mode of transmission of the HIV is
a. Blood transfusion,
b. By syringes,
c. Vertical transmission,
d. Heterosexual contact.
8. Bacterial resistance transmission is through
a. Conjugation,
b. transduction,
c. Convocation
d. Transformation
9. Kyasanur forest disease is caused by
a. Virus,
b. Louse,
c. Mite,
d. Tick
10. Ascariasis causes
a. Intestinal obstruction,
b. Bile duct obstruction,
c. Both,
d. neither
Forensic Medicine1. Double edge sword produces which type of wound
a. Triangular,
b. Elliptical,
c. Wedge shape,
d. Oval.
2. In a case of drowning froth was coming out of mouth froth was
a. Fine and Frothy,
b. Coarse and turbid,
c. Blood stained,
d. Fine and bubbling.
3. Regarding sudden infant death all are true except
a. Mother taking narcotics,
b. Congenital defect,
c. Previous SIDS,
d. Prematurity.
4. While taking dying declaration, a doctor should
a. Call magistrate,
b.Testify the statements made under sound mind,
c. Note down the declaration,
d. Arrange for the witness.
5. Putrefaction occurs over the caecal area after around
a. 12 hours,
b. 12-24 hours,
c. 24-28 hours,
d. 3 days.
6. Blood stain of human origin is tested by,
a. Precipitin test,
b. Hemin test,
c. Hemochromagen test,
d. Benzidine test.
SPM1. Commonest cause of blindness in India is
a. Malnutrition,
b. Trachoma,
c. Conjunctivitis,
d. Refraction error.
2. What is the treatment of multibacillary leprosy as directed by WHO
a.24 months treatment in 36 months
b.24 months treatment in 30 months
c.24 months treatment in 24 months
d.6 months treatment in 9 months.
3. SET centers are used in
a. Leprosy elimination,
b. TB control,
c. Guineaworm eradication,
d. Malaria survey.
4. Minimum qualification of village health guide should be
a. Should have passed at least VI standard,
b. Can read and write,
c. Passed X standard,
d. Should be a graduate.
5. What is the percentage of weight for height at which severe malnutrition is diagnosed
a.less than 90 per centile
b.less than 80 per centile
c.less than 70per centile
d.less than 60 per centile
6. Mesotheliomas are due to
a. Asbestosis,
b. Silicosis,
c. Byssinosis,
d. Bagassosis
7. Which is the following Arboviral infection is not found in India
a. Yellow fever,
b. Japanese encephalitis,
c. KFD,
d. West Nile fever
8. Most effective method of transmission of leprosy is
a. Skin to skin contact,
b. Droplet infection,
c. Urine,
d. Blood transmission.
9. For malaria control, DDT is sprayed
a. Rice fields,
b. Indoor,
c. Outdoor,
d. wheat fields.
10. Under 5 mortality rate x 100 denotes:
Total deaths during the year
a. Proportional mortality rate,
b. Specific mortality rate,
c. Case fatality rate,
d. Child survival index.
11. Predictive value of a negative test is
a. b x 100,
b. C x 100,
c. d x 100,
d. a x 100
a+b c+d c+d a+b
12. Unmodified risk factors for heart disease is
a. Smoking,
b. Alcohol,
c. family history,
d. Cholesterol.
13. Which of the following comes under UIP
a. Hepatitis B,
b. Rubella,
c. Measles,
d. None
14. Food poisoning is caused by
a. Staphylococci ,
b. Pseudomonas,
c. Streptococci,
d. Vibrio cholera
15. PQLI includes
a. Education, IMR, life expectancy of infant,
b. Per capita income, education, IMR,
c. MMR, IMR education,
d. Life expectancy at age 1m IMR, literacy.
16. Goals to be achieved by 2000 were
a. IMR less than 60, CBR less than 21,
b. IMR less than 80, CBR less than 21,
c. CBR less than 10, IMR less than 60,
d. MMR less than10, IMR less than 60.
17. Worker on roti diet presents with diarrhea and CNS symptoms, freckles over neck and dermatitis. Also rashes are present on exposed parts of body. Probable cause is
a. Vitamin B1 deficiency,
b. Vitamin B2 deficiency,
c. Niacin deficiency,
d. Protein calorie malnutrition.
18. In case control study, control is
a. Chosen before the study, b. free from the disease,
c. Suffering from the disease,
d. Should be different from case in age sex etc.
19. Which of the following has shortest incubation period in case of food poisoning
a. Staphylococci,
b. Salmonella,
c.Clostridium botulinium,
d. Bacillus cereus.
