Floor of Fossa ovalis of the interatrial septum is formed by
a. Septum Secundum
b. Septum primum
c. Septum Intermedium
d. Membranous part of the Septum
AnswerTags:
MCQ, Embryology, Fossa Ovalis
The following arteries are related to the Superior border of the pancreas
Except
A. Coeliac Trunk
B. Left Gastric Artery
C. Common hepatic artery
D. Splenic Artery
AnswerTags:
mcq, anatomy, Pancreas
Brush border of Columnar epithelium is tightly packed ...................
a. Tonofibrils
b. Microtubules
c. Microvilli
d. Stereocilia
AnswerTags:
MCQ, Histology, Brush Border
The classical hip pain is felt over the area of distribution of all the nerves EXCEPT
a. Sciatic Nerve
b. Femoral Nerve
c. Obturator Nerve
d. Femoral Nerve
AnswerTags:
MCQ, Anatomy, Dermatomes
After ovulation the cervical mucus thickens and lessens in quantity under the influence of
a. Progesterone
b. Oestrogen
c. L.H
d. h.C.G
AnswerTags:
MCQ, Physiology, Ovulation
Spontaneous respiration ceases after
a. transection of the brainstem above the pons
b. transection of the brainstem at the caudal end of the medulla
c. bilateral vagotomy
d. bilateral vagotomy combined with transection of the brainstem at the superior border
AnswerTags:
MCQ, Physiology, Respiration
The venous system can act as a reservoir for peripheral blood chiefly because of the:
a. inherent distensibility of the venous wall
b. Absence of smooth muscle fibers in the venous wall
c. Superficial location of veins
d. Large volume capacity
AnswerTags:
MCQ, Physiology, Venous system
Vasopressin secretion is increased by:
a.Increased effective osmotic pressure of plasma.
b. decreased effective osmotic pressure of plasma.
c. Increased extracellular fluid volume
d. Alcohol
AnswerTags:
MCQ, Physiology, Vasopressin
The magnocellular pathway for vision receive signals from:
a. X Retinal ganglion cells
b. Y Retinal ganglion cells
c. Colorblobs
d. Brodmann's area 17
AnswerTags:
MCQ, Physiology, Retina, Vision
Which one of the following human tissues contains the greatest amount of body glycogen?
a. Liver
b. Kidney
c. Skeletal Muscle
d. Cardiac Muscle
AnswerTags:
MCQ, Biochemistry, Glycogen
Metabolic acidosis is characterized by:
a. Primary deficit in carbonic acid
b. Primary excess of bicarbonate
c. Primary deficit of bicarbonate
d. Primary excessof carbonic acid
AnswerTags:
mcq, biochemistry, acid-base
Defective Phagolysosome formation is a feature of
a. Chronic Graulomatous disease
b. Chediak-Higashi syndrome
c. Ataxia telangiectasia
d. Fanconi Anemia
Answer
Fibrolamellar type of Hepatocellular carcinoma is associated with all of the following features
except that:
a. It occurs in young adults
b. It is more common in females
c. It has no association with cirhosis of liver
d. It has better prognosis
Answer
In primary atypical pneumonia the inflammatory exudate is seen in the
a. Alveolar lumen
b. Bronchioles
c. Pleura
d. Alveolar Interstitium
Answer
All the following enzymes act as free radical scavenging systems
EXCEPT
a. Catalase
b. Superoxide dismutase
c. Glutathione Peroxidase
d. Xanthine oxidase
Answer
The most important factor related to the prognosis of breast cancer is
a. Presence of activated oncogenes
b. The histological type
c. The size of the tumor
d. Status of axillary lymph node
Answer
The Commonest type of abrasion seen in road traffic accidents is
a. Scratch abrasions
b. Grazed Abrasions
c. Contact Abrasions
d. Imprint Abrasions
Answer
In a case of disputed paternity, Father's blood group is A, Mother's blood group is B, the child's blood is
a. A only
b. B only
c. AB only
d. A,AB,B or O
Answer
For DNA test liquid blood is preserved in
a. Sodium Citrate
b. Pot. Oxalate
c. EDTA
d. Sodium Fluoride
Answer
The route of administration of Amyl Nitrate in Cyanide poisoning is
a. Intra Muscular
b. Intra Venous
c. Sub dermal
d. Inhalation
Answer
Caput Succedaneum in a new born is
a. Collection of blood under the pericranium
b. Collection of Sero-sanguineous fluid in the scalp
c. Oedema of the scalp due to grip of the forceps
d. Varicose veins in the scalp
Answer
The Most Common Cause of non-gonococcal urethritis is:
a.
Trichomonas Vaginalisb.
Chlamydia trachomatisc.
Ureaplasma urealyticumd.
Escherichia Coli
Answer
Detection of Antibodies to arc 5 antigen is done to diagnose
a. Cysticercosis
b. Hydatid cyst disease
c. Brucellosis
d. Cryptococcosis
Answer
The binding site for the complement on the IgG molecule is in the
a. VL domain
b. CL Domain
c. CH1 Domain
d. CH2 Domain
Answer
CAMP test is used to detect infection caused by
a. Streptococcus equsimilis
b. Streptococcus agalactiae
c. Streptococcus viridans
d. Streptococcus viridans
Answer
NIH Swab is used for the recovery of the eggs of
a. Ancylostoma duodenale
b. Enterobius vermicularis
c. Ascaris lumbriocoides
d. Trichinella Spiralis
Answer
Asymptomatic Carriage of Listeria in humans is:
a. Upto 5%
b.15-20%
c. 30-40%
d. Not present
Answer
Epitope binding floor of the MHC molecule consists of
a. Alpha helices
b. 8 stranded Beta pleated structure
c. Alpha and Beta 1 chain
d. Beta-2 microglobulin
Answer
Draughtsman appearance phenomenon is characteristic feature of
a. Streptococcus pyogenes
b. Streptococcus agalectiae
c. Streptococcus Pneumoniae
d Streptococcus viridans
Answer
An example of yeast is
a. Candida albicans
b. Cryptococcus neoformans
c. Pencillium mameffei
d. Aspergillus fumigatus
Answer
Effect of Antibody on bacteria include each of the following except
A. Lyses Gram Negative Bacteria
B. Enhances phagocytosis
C. Increase in the frequency of Lysogeny
D. Inhibits bacterial adherence to mucosal cells
AnswerTags:
MCQ, Microbiology, Antibody
Leukemogenesis by HTLV-1 virus has been attributed towhich of the following viral genes?
A. gag
B. tax
C. pol
D. env
AnswerTags:
MCQ, Microbiology, HTLV-1
Which one of the following disorders is not grouped under monoclonal gammopathies?
A. Burkitt lymphoma
B. Multiple myeloma
C. Heavy chain disease
D. Primary amyloidosis
AnswerTags:
MCQ, Immunology, Monoclonal Gammopathies
Administrative unit of the ICDS project in rural areas is
A. PHC
B. Community Development block
C. Zilla parishad
D. Gram panchayat
AnswerTags:
MCQ, PSM, ICDS
In which of the following diseases, Herd Immunity cannot protect the individual
A. Tetanus
B. Diphtheria
C. Poliomyelitis
D. All of the above
AnswerTags:
MCQ, PSM, Herd Immunity
The first country in the South East Asian Region (SEAR) to report AIDS was -
A. Sri Lanka
B. India
C. Thailand
D. Bangladesh
AnswerTags:
MCQ, PSM, AIDS Epidemiology
The fourth stage of the demographic cycle is
A. Declining
B. Early Expanding
C. High Stationary
D. Low stationary
AnswerTags:
MCQ, PSM, Demographic cycle
The latrine intended for camps of long duration is -
A. Shallow trench latrine
B. Borehole latrine
C. Water seal latrine
D. Deep trench latrine
AnswerTags:
MCQ, PSM, Sanitation, Latrine
Pasteurization of milk is an example of
A. Absolute disinfection
B. Precurrent disinfection
C. Concurrent disinfection
D. Terminal disinfection
AnswerTags:
MCQ, PSM, Pasteurization
Pap smear test for detection of Carcinoma of Cervix is which level of prevention
A. Primordial
B. Primary
C. Secondary
D. Tertiary
AnswerTags:
MCQ, PSM, Level of Prevention
A person who has lost his foot in an accident and is not able to walk is an example of
A. Disease
B. Disability
C. Impairment
D. Handicap
AnswerTags:
MCQ, PSM, Disability vs handicap
National Population Policy 2000 aims to achieve all EXCEPT
A. Targets to be achieved by the year 2010
B. Reduction of IMR to less than 30 live births/1000 live births
C. Reduction of MMR to less than 100 live births/1000 live births
D. Achieve 100% registration of births,deaths,marriage and pregnancy
AnswerTags:
MCQ, PSM, National Population Policy 2000
As per the most common classification of Triage system that is internationally accepted, the colour code that indicates high priority treatment or transfer is
A. Black
B. Yellow
C. Red
D. Blue
AnswerTags:
MCQ, PSM, Triage
When the economic benefits of any programme are compared with the cost of the programme it is called
A. Cost-Benefit Analysis
B. Cost Effective Analysis
C. Cost-Acoounting
D. Input-Output analysis
AnswerTags:
MCQ, PSM, Cost-benefit analysis
The association between low birth weight andmaternal smoking during pregnancy can be studied by obtaining smoking histories of women at the time of their visit and thensubsequently correlating birth weightwith smoking histories. what type of study is this?
A. Clinical trial
B. Cross-sectional
C. Prospective
D. Case-Control
AnswerTags:
MCQ, PSM, Epidemiological Studies
Panel discussion can be defined as
A. Series of Speeches
B. Discussion by 4-8 qualified persons
C. Groups describing individual experiences
D. Stage wise formatted teaching
AnswerTags:
MCQ, PSM, Panel discussion
In Management "Goal" refers to
A. Planned end point of all activity
B. Discrete activity
C. Ultimate desired state towards which objectives andresources are directed
D. Analysis of health Situation
Answer
Erythema Nodosum Leprosum (ENL) occurs
A. Due to Lepromin test reaction
B. In those with tuberculoid leprosy
C. As a reaction to multi drug therapy
D. In those with lepromatous leprosy
AnswerTags:
MCQ, PSM, Erythema nodosum leprosum
Cluster testing is the term used during
A. UIP Survey for polio
B. Screening For STD's
C. Exposing the body for hypopigmented patches
D. Testing contacts of typhoid cases
AnswerTags:
MCQ, PSM, Cluster testing
Type A (Augmented) adverse drug reactions are characterized by all EXCEPT
A. Qualitatively abnormal responses to the drug
B. Predictable from the drug's known pharmacological or toxicological effects
C. Generally dose-dependant
D. Usually common
AnswerTags:
MCQ, Pharmacology, Drug Reactions
A patient presents with Zollinger-Ellison syndrome due to gastrinoma. He has two bleeding ulcers and diarrhea. A drug that irreversibly inhibits the H+/K+ ATPase ingastric parietal cells is
A. Cimetidine
B. Cisapride
C. Glycopyrollate
D. Omeprazole
AnswerTags:
MCQ, Pharmacology, Peptic Ulcer Drugs
The appearance of markedly vacuolated, nucleated redcells in the marrow,anemia and reticulocytopenia are characteristic dose-dependant side effects of
A. Azithromycin
B. Chloramphenicol
C. Clindamycin
D. Doxycycline
AnswerTags:
MCQ, Pharmacology, Adverse Effects
Which of the following statements is true about ketorolac?
A. It Has potent anti-inflammatory activity
B. It's analgesic efficacy is equal to morphine in post-operative pain
C. Is used as preanesthetic medication
D. It interacts with opioid receptors
AnswerTags:
MCQ, Pharmacology, Ketorolac
Which of the following statements is not correct of Tardive Dyskinesia
a. It is an unwanted side-effect of antipsychotics
b. Levodopa exacerbates the symptoms
c. Antimuscarinic drugsreduce its severity
d. Often diazepam is used to bring improvement
AnswerTags:
MCQ, Pharmacology, Tardive Dyskinesia
Which one of the following H1 blockers is non sedating?
A. Diphenhydramine
B. Chlorpheniramine
C. Loratidine
D. Promethazine
AnswerTags:
MCQ, Pharmacology, H1 blockers
The Correct answer is B
(1) defects in adhesion due to genetic deficiency of β2 integrins (LAD-1) or fucosyl transferase (LAD-2)
(2) defects in phagolysosome function (
Chediak-Higashi syndrome)
(3) defects in microbicidal activity due to a genetic deficiency of the NADPH oxidase system (chronic granulomatous disease) or genetic deficiency of myeloperoxidase.
Chediak-Higashi syndrome (CHS), is a rare
autosomal recessive disorder associated with an immune deficiency leading to increase susceptibility to infection and a life-threatening lymphoma-like syndrome.
A lack of natural killer cell function and a neutropenia may be found, with a prominent defect in formation of neutrophil granules.
The gene for CHS has been cloned, based on its homology to the murine gene responsible for the Beige phenotype that corresponds to the mouse CHS .
The CHS protein has structural features homologous to a yeast vacuolar sorting protein thought to be associated with vesicle transport.
In fact, the CHS abnormalities are not restricted to neutrophils and
all cell types show some oversized lysosomes, the disease affecting thus several organ systems.
The correct answer is D
- Xanthine oxidase is a free radical producing enzyme.
- Super oxide dismutase is a potent protective enzyme that can selectively scavenge the superoxide radical (O2.-) by catalyzing its dismutation to hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) and molecular oxygen (O2).
- The other antioxidative enzymes, Catalase and Glutathione Peroxidase, act to decompose H2O2 to water.
Other Free radical producing enzymes are:
- inducible nitric oxide synthase (iNOS)
- NADPH oxidase
The Correct Answer is DAnalyses regularly indicate that the presence or absence of metastasis to axillary lymph nodes is the single most influential predictor of post treatment recurrence and death.
Stage is the single most important prognostic factor in breast cancer, as it will take into consideration local involvement, lymph node status and whether metastatic disease is present or not.
The higher the stage at the time of diagnosis, the worse the prognosis of breast cancer is. Node negative breast cancer patients have a much better prognosis compared to node positive patients.
For more info Visit here
The Correct Answer is B
Abrasions are commonly caused by a 'glancing' impact across the surface of the skin, but if the force is directed vertically down onto the skin surface it may be termed a 'crush' injury.
These wounds are seen where an object has struck the skin (eg a blow from a fist), or where the injured person has fallen onto a rough surface, such as road.
Abrasions may be 'linear', or commonly known as a single 'scratch', whereas if a broader surface is affected, it is called a 'graze' or 'brush abrasion' (eg where a motorcyclist is thrown from their vehicle, and comes into contact with the road surface in a skidding fashion). Such an abrasion often covers a relatively large area of skin, and is often called a 'friction burn' in lay language.
The correct Answer is DAround 1900 it was discovered that there are at least 4 different kinds of human blood. This is based on the fact that on the surface of the red blood cells there may be one or more proteins, called antigens. These antigens are called A and B. Antibodies are produced in the blood plasma against these A and B antigens, and continue to be produced throughout a person’s life.
The antigens determining the four blood groups are the result of the expression of three alleles; O, A and B; the latter two being dominant to O. The genotypes AA and AO, and the genotypes BB and BO cannot be distinguished serologically and are classified as group A and B respectively. Thus only four phenotypes (A, B, AB, and O) can be recognized, although six genotypes occur.
A person’s blood type is inherited from their parents, just like any other genetic trait.
Persons with blood type A have inherited one or two copies of the gene for the A antigen, one from each parent. Persons with blood type B have inherited one or two copies of the gene for the B antigen. Persons with blood type AB have inherited on copy of the A antigen from one parent and one copy of the B antigen gene from the other parent. Persons with blood type O inherited neither A nor B genes from their parents.
Blood typing can be used in legal situations involving identification or disputed paternity. In paternity cases a comparison of the blood types of mother, child, and alleged father may be used to exclude a man as the possible parent of a child. For example, a child with the blood type AB whose mother is type A could not have a father whose blood type is A or O. The father must have blood type B.
An interesting link regarding disputed paternity
The correct Answer is C
DNA in biological samples is very stable and can tolerate room temperature storage conditions very well. However, over an extended period of time, frozen storage is generally considered to be the optimum storage condition for biological samples. This means that evidence, such as bloodstained clothing, should be held frozen.
Liquid blood samples, stored in glass or plastic containers, should be held in the refrigerator since these samples can break in the freezer.
Liquid blood samples containing preservatives (e.g. EDTA) are stable for a very long period of time in the refrigerator.
Certain buffers (e.g. those containing
EDTA) are
designed to inhibit the activity of nucleases that can breakdown DNA and these can preserve DNA in liquid form better than other liquid extractants
The correct Answer is D
Amyl nitrate is chemically related to nitroglycerin and has been used for many years to treat angina pectoris. It is also effective in the emergency management of cyanide poisoning by causing the oxidation of hemoglobin to the compound methemoglobin. Methemoglogbin reacts with the cyanide ion to form cyanomethemoglogin, which has less affinity for oxygen, thus freeing hemoglogin to react with oxygen.
Onset of action: 30 seconds inhaled
Supplied: 0.3 ml/glass ampule (capsule covered with woven gauze).
Dose/Administration: Adult: Glass ampule should be broken and inhaled for 30-60 seconds. Repeat as necessary
Pediatric: same as adult
The Correct Answer is B
Caput Succedaneum is a collection of blood/fluid in subQ tissues of scalp
- not limited by bony sutures
- benign, self-limited, resolves in days
Collection of bloodunder the pericranium is a
Cephalhematoma
The correct Answer is D
C3
binds covalently within the region extending from the last 20 residues of
the variable region through the
first 20 residues of CH2.The CH2 domain is the binding site for Clq with the exposed ß strand of Glu318, Lys320, and Lys322 important .
Amino acid changes within CH2 result in the inability of IgG4 to activate complement and contribute to the differential abilities of the other isotypes to activate complement.
The correct Answer is B
Enterobiasis is caused by infection with the pinworm,
Enterobius vermicularis.
Transmission: Ingestion of eggs from the environment. A common autoinfection route in children is transfer of eggs from the perianal region to the mouth by contaminated fingers. Infection is also acquired from inhalation of eggs that adhere to mucus membranes and eventually are swallowed.
Location: The adult worms live in the proximal colon, cecum and appendix.
Morphology and life cycle: The adult females are about one centimeter in length. They have a sharply pointed posterior end which gives them the name, "pinworm". Male and female pinworms inhabit the cecum, ppendix and adjacent colon. The males die after copulation. The gravid females migrate down the colon, through the anus and lay their eggs on the perianal skin or they can explode releasing large numbers of eggs. The eggs become infectious within a few hours and may be directly ingested on contaminated fingers or spread to the environment by air currents. Retroinfection can occur. The entire cycle takes 4 – 6 weeks.
Diagnosis: Eggs are not usually found in the feces.
Cellulose tape swabs (Scotch tape/ N.I.H. Swab) are applied to the anal folds and perianal skin in the morning before the patient bathes or goes to the bathroom. The tape is examined microscopically for the presence of pinworm eggs. Although seven consecutive negative swabs are necessary to exclude the diagnosis of enterobiasis, three or four swabs will detect the majority of infections. In some families there may be a strong psychological reaction to discovering the infection in their children (“pinworm psychosis”).
http://www.dpd.cdc.gov/dpdx/HTML/ImageLibrary/Enterobiasis_il.htmhttp://www.biosci.ohio-state.edu/~parasite/enterobius.html
The correct answer is ? a/c
Apart from the large number of allelic forms of MHC molecules there are two main structural types; these are known as MHC class I molecules and MHC class II molecules (fig 1.) .
- Class I molecules have a three domain transmembrane structure; the peptide-binding site is shared by the two domains furthest from the cell membrane – a fourth domain is supplied by a separate molecule β2-microglobulin.
- Class II molecules have 2 transmembrane polypeptide chains; the peptide-binding site is shared by the two domains furthest from the cell membrane.
The overall structure of the peptide-binding site is very similar for both class I and class II MHC molecules; the base is made of β-pleated sheet, as is found in an immunoglobulin domain – the
sides of the groove that holds the peptide are α-helices. The peptides are held very securely in place by hydrogen bonding to the backbone of the peptide (which allows a very wide range of peptide sequences to bind), while some of the sidechains of the peptide fit into pockets in the MHC protein (which provides the allelic specificity of peptide binding).
In class I MHC both ends of the peptide are anchored into the protein and so only short peptides (8 to 10 residues) can be accommodated, while in class II MHC the ends protrude from the binding groove, allowing longer peptides (15 to 25 residues) to bind.
The Correct answer is B
- Candida albicans is a dimorphic fungus, i.e. it can take two forms.
- Most of the time it exists as oval, single yeast cells, which reproduce by budding. Most yeasts do not produce mycelia (a mass of branching, threadlike hyphal filaments), but Candida has a trick up its sleeve.
- Normal room temperatures favour the yeast form of the organism, but under physiological conditions (body temperature, pH, and the presence of serum) it may develop into a hyphal form.
- Pseudohyphae, composed of chains of cells, are also common.
- Chlamydospores may be formed on the pseudomycelium.
Cryptococcus neoformans-
Only yeast phase but unusual in that the cells are
encapsulated as demonstrated by an India Ink stain.
The correct answer is AIn binding their specific antigens, the antibodies can cause agglutination and precipitation of antibody-antigen products primed for phagocytosis by macrophages and other cells, block viral receptors, and stimulate other immune responses, such as the complement pathway.
Some antibodies, like IgA, also directly bind to microbes in mucus to prevent the colonization of mucosal tissues.
The correct answer is BHTLV-I is associated with adult T-cell leukemia/lymphoma (ATL) characterized by monoclonal expansions of CD4+ T-lymphocytes. In this report we describe a histologically benign, polyclonal HTLV-I infection in a patient exhibiting both an absolute CD4+ and CD8+ lymphocytosis.
Changes in centrosome duplication have been observed in cancers caused by genetic mutations as well as in cancers induced by viruses. A recent report by Ching et al. further elucidates how the HTLV-1 Tax protein may modulate centrosome duplication resulting in aneuploidy and the development of adult T cell leukemia (ATL).
The correct answer is AThe monoclonal gammopathies, also called paraproteinemias or dysproteinemias, are a group of disorders characterized by the proliferation of one or more clones of differentiated B lymphocytes that each produce an immunologically homogeneous immunoglobulin commonly referred to as a paraprotein or monoclonal (M) protein.
The monoclonal gammopathies encompass a number of diseases including plasmacytoma, monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance (MGUS), multiple myeloma, Waldenströms macroglobulinemia, and systemic amyloid light-chain (AL) amyloidosis.
The correct answer is BThe administrative unit for the location of an ICDS projects is a community development block in the rural area. A tribal development block in the tribal area and a group of slums in urban area. In the selection of projects priority is given to areas predominantly inhabited by scheduled tribes and scheduled castes, to back ward and draught prone area, to nutritionally deficient areas and to areas leaking in the development of social services.
The correct answer is BPerinatal Mortality Rate
The number of perinatal deaths per 1000 births. The perinatal period starts as the beginning of foetal viability (28 weeks gestation or 1000g) and ends at the end of the 7th day after delivery. Perinatal deaths are the sum of stillbirths plus early neonatal deaths.
Late foetal deaths are foetal deaths of 28 or more completed weeks of gestation. Foetal deaths of unknown gestational age are included with those 28 or more weeks.
The correct answer is ACommunity immunity or "herd immunity" is an important part of protecting the community against disease. Because vaccinated people have antibodies that neutralize a germ, they are much less likely to transmit that germ to other people. Thus, even people who have not been vaccinated (and those whose vaccinations have become weakened or whose vaccines aren't fully effective) often can be shielded by the herd immunity because vaccinated people around them are not getting sick. Herd immunity is more effective as the percentage of people vaccinated increases. It is thought that approximately 95% of the people in the community must be protected by a vaccine to achieve herd immunity. People who are not immunized increase the chance that they and others will get the disease.
For some diseases, however, herd immunity offers no protection. For example, tetanus is not contagious. It is contracted when a wound comes in contact with soil contaminated with the tetanus bacterium. It is important to keep in mind that a few people may not be protected from the disease even though they have been vaccinated. About 1 or 2 of every 20 people immunized will not have an adequate immune response to a vaccine. But if 95% of the population is immunized, then the unprotected people are not as likely to be exposed to the germ at all, so they have a smaller chance of becoming infected.
The correct answer is BThe Human Development Index (HDI) is a comparative measure of life expectancy, literacy, education, and standard of living for countries worldwide. It is a standard means of measuring well-being, especially child welfare.
The HDI measures the average achievements in a country in three basic dimensions of human development:
- A long and healthy life, as measured by life expectancy at birth.
- Knowledge, as measured by the adult literacy rate (with two-thirds weight) and the combined primary, secondary, and tertiary gross enrollment ratio (with one-third weight).
- A decent standard of living, as measured by the log of gross domestic product (GDP) per capita at purchasing power parity (PPP) in USD.
India Falls under the Medium HDI Group of countries.
The correct answer is CSince the first case of AIDS in the South-East Asia Region (SEAR) of World Health Organization (WHO) was reported from Thailand in 1984, the AIDS epidemic has spread rapidly in the Region with serious adverse consequences on the health and socioeconomic status of the countries. This Region has now the second largest number of HIV-infected persons in the world, the largest number being in Sub-Saharan Africa.
The correct answer is DThe history of world population since 1650 suggests that there is a demographic cycle of 5 stages through which a nation passes viz,
(1) First stage (high stationary) — Characterised by a high birth rate and a high death rate which cancel each other and the population remains stationary. India was in this stage till 1920.
(2) Second stage (early expanding) —The death rate begins to decline, while the birth rate remains unchanged.
(3) Third stage (late expanding) — The death rate declines still further, and the birth rate tends to fall. The population continues to grow because births exceed deaths. India has entered this phase.
(4) Fourth stage (low stationary) — Characterised by a low birth and low death rate with the result the population becomes stationary (zero population growth has already been recorded in Austria during 1980-85 and growth rates as little as 0.1 were recorded in UK, Denmark, Sweden and Belgium during 1980-85).
(5) Fifth stage (declining) — The population begins to decline because birth rate is lower than the death rate (some East European countries, notably Germany and Hungary, are experiencing this stage).
The correct answer is DDeep pit latrines.If the unit is going on an extended stay, longer than three days, then deep pit latrines are usually built. This latrine uses a two-seat or four-seat box either issued to, or built by, the unit using. The two-seat box is four feet long, two and one half feet wide at the base, and sixteen inches high. The four-seat box is eight feet long. To minimize flies entering the latrine, pack the dirt tightly around the base of the box. Lids that are fly-proof and self-closing should cover the seat holes. A metal urine deflector strip is placed inside the front of the box to prevent urine from soaking into the wood. The pit for the latrine is dug two feet wide and either three and one half or seven and one half feet long.
The depth of the pit should equal one foot for each week the latrine will be used, plus one foot for the dirt cover when the latrine is closed.
The correct answer is CIn medicine, prevention is any activity which reduces the burden of mortality or morbidity from disease. This takes place at primary, secondary and tertiary prevention levels.
Primary prevention avoids the development of a disease. Most population-based health promotion activities are primary preventive measures.
Secondary prevention activities are aimed at early disease detection, thereby increasing opportunities for interventions to prevent progression of the disease and emergence of symptoms.
Tertiary prevention reduces the negative impact of an already established disease by restoring function and reducing disease-related complications.
The correct answer is AThe total fertility rate (TFR) is used to represent the approximate magnitude of completed family size, that is, the total number of children an average woman will bear in her lifetime, assuming no mortality. It is expressed as the sum of the age-specific fertility rates over all ages of the child-bearing period.
The correct answer is BThe World Health Organization (WHO) recognizes that the effects of physical impairments do not focus solely on the individual’s motor strengths and needs. Instead, the cultural influence of the family and community environments and the physical impairments are inter-related and impact one another. This is termed continuum of disablement and it includes three levels: impairment, disability, and handicap.
The International Classification of Impairments, Disease, and Handicaps defines each of these levels.
- Impairment is a loss or abnormality of structure or function.
- Disability is defined as the restriction or inability to perform an activity in the manner considered normal for humans.
- Finally, handicap is the social and psychological results of the impairment. Handicap refers to the problems and labels that society uses when associated with disabilities
(Nagler, 1993).
A disability is a personal functional limitation. A handicap is an environmental or attitudinal barrier.
The correct answer is CThe National Population Policy, 2000 (NPP 2000) affirms the commitment of government towards voluntary and informed choice and consent of citizens while availing of reproductive health care services, and continuation of the target free approach in administering family planning services.
The NPP 2000 provides a policy framework for advancing goals and prioritizing strategies during the next decade, to meet the reproductive and child health needs of the people of India, and to achieve net replacement levels (TFR) by 2010.It is based upon the need to simultaneously address issues of child survival, maternal health, and contraception,while increasing outreach and coverage of a comprehensive package of reproductive and child heath services by government, industry and the voluntary non-government sector, working in partnership.
The immediate objective of the NPP 2000 is to address the unmet needs for contraception,health care infrastructure, and health personnel, and to provide integrated service delivery for basic reproductive and child health care. The medium-term objective is to bring the TFR to replacement levels by 2010, through vigorous implementation of inter-sectoral operational strategies. The long-term objective is to achieve a stable population by 2045, at a level consistent with the requirements of sustainable economic growth, social development, and environmental protection.
In pursuance of these objectives, the following
National Socio-Demographic Goals to be achieved in each case by 2010 are formulated:
- Address the unmet needs for basic reproductive and child health services, supplies and infrastructure.
- Make school education up to age 14 free and compulsory, and reduce drop outs at primary and secondary school levels to below 20 percent for both boys and girls.
- Reduce infant mortality rate to below 30 per 1000 live births.
- Reduce maternal mortality ratio to below 100 per 100,000 live births.
- Achieve universal immunization of children against all vaccine preventable diseases.
- Promote delayed marriage for girls, not earlier than age 18 and preferably after 20 years of age.
- Achieve 80 percent institutional deliveries and 100 percent deliveries by trained persons.
- Achieve universal access to information/counseling, and services for fertility regulation and contraception with a wide basket of choices.
- Achieve 100 per cent registration of births, deaths, marriage and pregnancy.
- Contain the spread of Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (AIDS), and promote greater integration between the management of reproductive tract infections (RTI) and sexually transmitted infections (STI) and the National AIDS Control Organisation.
- Prevent and control communicable diseases.
- Integrate Indian Systems of Medicine (ISM) in the provision of reproductive and child health services, and in reaching out to households.
- Promote vigorously the small family norm to achieve replacement levels of TFR.
- Bring about convergence in implementation of related social sector programs so that family welfare becomes a people centred programme
The correct answer is CIn a disaster or mass casualty situation, different systems for triage have been developed. One system is known as START (Simple Triage and Rapid Treatment). In START, victims are grouped into four categories, depending on the urgency of their need for evacuation. If necessary, START can be implemented by persons without a high level of training. The categories in START are:
- the deceased, who are beyond help
- the injured who could be helped by immediate transportation
- the injured with less severe injuries whose transport can be delayed
- those with minor injuries not requiring urgent care.
Another system that has been used in mass casualty situations is an example of advanced triage implemented by nurses or other skilled personnel. This advanced triage system involves a color-coding scheme using red, yellow, green, white, and black tags:
- Red tags - (immediate) are used to label those who cannot survive without immediate treatment but who have a chance of survival.
- Yellow tags – (observation) for those who require observation (and possible later re-triage). Their condition is stable for the moment and, they are not in immediate danger of death. These victims will still need hospital care and would be treated immediately under normal circumstances.
- Green tags – (wait) are reserved for the "walking wounded" who will need medical care at some point, after more critical injuries have been treated.
- White tags – (dismiss) are given to those with minor injuries for whom a doctor’s care is not required.
- Black tags - (expectant) are used for the deceased and for those whose injuries are so extensive that they will not be able to survive given the care that is available.
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The correct answer is AA cost benefit analysis finds, quantifies, and adds all the positive factors. These are the benefits. Then it identifies, quantifies, and subtracts all the negatives, the costs. The difference between the two indicates whether the planned action is advisable.
Cost-benefit analysis is mainly, but not exclusively, used to assess the value for money of very large private and public sector projects. This is because such projects tend to include costs and benefits that are less amenable to being expressed in financial or monetary terms (e.g. environmental damage), as well as those that can be expressed in monetary terms. Private sector organisations tend to make much more use of other project appraisal techniques, such as rate of return, where feasible.
The practice of cost-benefit analysis differs between countries and between sectors (e.g. transport, health) within countries. Some of the main differences include the types of impacts that are included as costs and benefits within appraisals, the extent to which impacts are expressed in monetary terms and differences in discount rate between countries.
The correct answer is CProspective study: A study in which the subjects are identified and then followed forward in time.
Case control studies are studies in which patients who already have a certain condition are compared with people who do not.
For example: a study on which lung cancer patients are asked how much they smoked in the past and the answers are compared with a sample of the general population would be a case control study.
A cross-sectional study is a study in which disease and exposure status are measured simultaneously in a given population. Cross-sectional studies can be thought of as providing a "snapshot" of the frequency and characteristics of a disease in a population at a particular point in time.
