The Correct option is A

The Correct option is D

The Correct option is E


In a typical case of acute HBV infection, you can detect the surface antigen (HBsAg) early in time – the incubation period is 4-12 weeks – this is one of the events that happens early. HBsAg appears early in the serum, peaks, then DISAPPEARS. Can detect in some patients the E antigen (unreliable marker – not all patients have this during this phase) – appears about the same time, peaks and disappears about the same time as HBsAg. You don’t get the core antigen in the serum (stays in the hepatocytes).

Antibody is formed against E antigen, and against the core antigen (IgM).

The IgM against the core antigen does disappear and then you can detect IgG antibody against the core antigen for an indefinite period of time. Between the disappearance of the IgM and appearance of the IgG to the surface antigen and E antigen is the core window, where you can detect antibody to the core antigen.

The Correct option is D

The Correct option is e

The Correct option is D

The Correct option is D

The Correct option is A


Wilsons disease: occurs in children. Combination of liver disease (elevated AST/ALT), CNS problems (tremor, choreiform movements), and Kayser-Fleishcer ring of the cornea. Affects GP and Putamen.

Patient will have elevated copper in their blood and urine and decreased ceruplasmin (copper binding protein).

The Correct option is D

The Correct option is B


Primary hemochromatosis is an autosomal recessive inherited disorder, resulting in progressive iron absorption through the gastrointestinal tract with accumulation of iron in a variety of organs, including the liver. Without treatment, the disorder leads to cirrhosis and hepatic failure. With involvement of other organs, patients can also develop cardiac failure and various endocrine insufficiency states.

The Correct option is A


Wilson's disease, or hepatolenticular degeneration, is an autosomal recessive disorders of copper (Cu) metabolism characterised by an inability of the liver to excrete Cu into bile and to incorporate Cu into ceruloplasmin.

Clinically, Wilson's disease is characterised by neurologic, psychiatric and/or hepatic abnormalities. Movement disorders associated with Wilson's disease often take the form of action tremor, focal dystonia, rigidity, slowed movements and characteristic speech disorders. The psychiatric profile of Wilson's disease includes disturbances such as anxiety, irritability, and alteration in personality, forgetfulness, depression, mania, and rapid mood swings.

The Correct option is B

Primary sclerosing cholangitis:

• Rare disease characterised by chronic inflammation and fibrosis around bile ducts – diagnosis made by cholangiography and biopsy used to confirm or determine degree of liver damage.
  
• Often associated with inflammatory bowel disease
• Association with development of cholangiocarcinoma
  
• Close resemblance to type I auto-immune hepatitis

The Correct option is A


Primary biliary cirrhosis :

1. Signs of portal hypertension: hepatomegaly, splenomegaly, variceal bleeds, ascites
2. Signs of cholestasis: pigmentation, gallstones, steatorrhoea, pruritis, jaundice
3. Abdominal pain
4. Osteoporosis (important co-existing problem; steroids contra-indicated as can exacerbate this)
5. Associated with other auto-immune diseases: e.g. Sjogren's syndrome; thyroid auto-immunity; SLE; scleroderma; rheumatoid arthritis; CREST; dermatomyositis; renal tubular acidosis

The Correct option is E

Some people remain healthy for years but then as adults develop breathing difficulties due to emphysema. Alpha1 antitrypsin deficiency-related (AAT) emphysema is caused by the inherited deficiency of a protein called alpha1-antitrypsin (AAT) or alpha1-protease inhibitor. AAT, produced by the liver, is a "lung protector." In the absence of AAT, emphysema is almost inevitable. It is responsible for 5% or less of the emphysema in the United States.Symptoms of AAT deficiency emphysema usually begin between 32 and 41 years of age and include shortness of breath and decreased exercise capacity. Smoking significantly increases the severity of emphysema in AAT-deficient individuals.

The Correct option is D

• The hepatitis B virus itself does not directly cause damage to the liver. Rather, the body's immune (protective) response to the virus (a foreign material) paradoxically causes the damage.
  
• An acute hepatitis B viral infection can lead to recovery (the usual outcome), to acute liver failure (rarely), and sometimes to chronic infection.
  
• The chronic infection can result in a healthy carrier state (in which the affected person harbors the virus but remains healthy) or progress to cirrhosis (sever scarring, or fibrosis, of the liver) and its complications, including liver cancer.

The Correct option is D


Hepatitis B is an infectious liver disease that is caused by the hepatitis B virus. This virus is spread when blood or other body fluids from an infected person enters the body of a non-infected person—for example, from an infected mother to her baby during birth. Overall, infants born to infected women have a 4% chance of being infected with hepatitis B at birth.

The Correct option is B

Refer Here

The Correct option is D


Small Cell Carcinoma: highly malignant tumor has a distinctive cell type...the epithelial cells are generally small, have little cytoplasm, and are small, round, and oval and, lack nucleoli...

A high mitotic rate is characteristic, with an average of 60 to 70 mitoses per 10 high-power fields. Necrosis is frequent and extensive. Basophilic nuclear staining of vascular walls by DNA from necrotic tumor cells (the Azzopardi effect) is common in necrotic areas. Although there is no absolute measure for the size of the tumor cells, a useful rule of thumb in small cell carcinoma is the diameter of three small lymphocytes.

The important difference between small cell carcinoma and other lung cancers is its more marked sensitivity to chemotherapy.

The Correct option is D

The Correct option is E

The Correct option is B

The Correct option is D


Leukoplakia is a clinical term that does not connote any specific histologic tissue alteration. Although leukoplakia has been overemphasized in its relationship to cancer, the etiology of any white lesion should be determined or monitored. The causes of leukoplakia are varied and include both intrinsic and extrinsic factors. Extrinsic factors include: tobacco, alcohol, and actinic radiation. Intrinsic factors include: vitamin deficiencies, immunodeficiencies, and genetic predisposition. A classic study by Waldron et al. revealed that 80% of these lesions showed benign changes such as hyperkeratosis, thickening of the epithelium (acanthosis) without any evidence of epithelial dysplasia (a pre-cancerous condition), a male predilection, and occurred mainly in patients in 50-70 years of age.

The Correct option is C

The Correct option is C


CK–MB levels, along with total CK, are tested in persons who have chest pain to diagnose whether they have had a heart attack. Since a high total CK could indicate damage to either the heart or other muscles, CK–MB helps to distinguish between these two sources.

The CK and CK index (a calculated parameter that evaluates the amount of CK-MB relative to the amount of total CK) rapidly rise together in a time course consistent with acute myocardial infarction (AMI).

Even at 8 hours, the laboratory suggests myocardial injury.

In AMI, CK-MB makes up a high percentage of total CK, so the CK index rises with CK-MB. In skeletal muscle injury, CK can be very high, but CK-MB is only a tiny portion of the total CK, so the CK index stays low. Serum CK is only slightly elevated on admission.

The time course of CK elevation is consistent with that expected for infarct-related release of CK. CK-MB rises and falls in parallel with CK, as does the CK index, with a peak at 24 hours. In this case, total CK and CK-MB appear to peak at the same time.

In most cases, CK-MB peaks about 6 hours before total CK and returns to normal levels about 12-24 hours before total CK.

The Correct option is C

The Correct option is E

Management of Iron overdose:

1. Decontamination: Iron is well known to form drug concretions (pharmacobezoar) and/or become adherent to the gastric wall due to its corrosive effect. Activated charcoal is not effective.

• whole bowel irrigation
• gastroscopic removal
• gastrotomy
  

X-ray review following decontamination procedures should be performed to ensure removal of drug from the GIT.

2. Antidote: Desferrioxamine , 15mg/kg/hour - up to 80mg/kg/day in first day…

Continue treatment until serum iron ≤ 60 mcmol/l, patient asymptomatic and urine colour is no longer “vin rosé” (ensure no iron remains in the gut).

Note:

• hypotension following rapid infusion (?anaphylactoid reaction)
• renal failure occur if patient hypovolaemic
• prolonged (greater than 24 hour) infusions associated with ARDS
• interference with serum iron measurement (spurious reduction)
• pre-disposes patient to Yersinia enterocolitica infection

3. Supportive care:

1. aggressive fluid replacement
2. correction of acidosis (sodium bicarbonate)
3. correction of coagulation disorders (fresh frozen plasma)

The Correct Option is B


The most common complication of iron supplementation includes constipation, and patients should be counselled to increase water intake. Other side effects include nausea, epigastric tenderness, or vomiting.

The Correct option is A


The most appropriate form of oral iron therapy is one containing iron salts such as ferrous fumarate, ferrous sulfate, or ferrous gluconate. The recommended daily dose is between 150-200mg of elemental iron daily. No evidence suggests that one preparation is more effective for the treatment of iron deficiency.

Ferrous sulfate at 325 mg TID contains 195 mg of elemental iron. Absorption of iron is best when taken on an empty stomach. This regimen should increase hemoglobin 2 g/dL over the next three weeks.

The Correct option is A

The Correct option is A


Hypochromic Microcytic anemia

• RBC's – smaller, ↑ zone of central pallor.
• Hypochromic = ↓ Hb in each RBC
• Microcytic = ↓ size of each RBC
• also, RBC’s ↑ anisocytosis (variation in size) and ↑ poikilocytosis (variation in shape).
• most common cause: Iron Deficiency
• most common nutritional deficiency: ↓ dietary iron
• most at risk: children and women in reproductive years (from menstrual blood loss and from pregnancy)
  

The Correct option is D

Neurological symptoms are more commonly associated with folic acid and vitamin B12 deficiency, rather than with Iron deficiency anemia.

The Correct option is E

Causes of Mitral regurgitation include:

• Acute rheumatic heart disease
• MVP
  
• Ischemia is responsible for 3-25% of mitral regurgitation.
• Mitral annular calcification
  
• Left ventricular dilatation and heart failure
  
• Tendineae rupture can be due to endocarditis, myocardial infarction, or trauma.
• Papillary muscle dysfunction usually is caused by infarction.
• Other causes include the following:
  • Ehlers-Danlos syndrome
  • Marfan syndrome
  • Osteogenesis imperfecta
  • Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

Reference: Mitral Regurgitation;Daniel DiSandro

The Correct option is C

The small verrucous vegetations seen along the closure line of this mitral valve are associated with acute rheumatic fever. These warty vegetations average only a few millimeters and form along the line of valve closure over areas of endocardial inflammation. Such verrucae are too small to cause serious cardiac problems.

The Correct option is C

The Correct option is C

Syphilitic aneurysms are due to inflammation of Aortic vasa vasorum. The most common sites of arterial involvement are the ascending aorta, the aortic arch and the pulmonary artery.

Syphilis aortitis is characterized by peri-aortic and meso-aortic inflammation with perivascular cuffing of lymphocytes around the vasa vasorum. Obstruction of the vasa vasorum follows, resulting in nutritional impairment of the medial coat together with degeneration of the muscle fibres. Aneurysmal dilatation eventually ensues as a result of weakening of the medial layer. Syphilitic aneurysms are either fusiform or saccular and may attain great size and compress
contiguous structures. Rupture into the thoracic cavity, pericardial sac, oesophagus or vena cava are known complications.

Reference: Rubin's Pathology, Fifth Edition, page 421.

The Correct option is B


Protruding atherosclerotic lesions in the thoracic aorta, often with superimposed mobile thrombi, are an important cause of embolic disease. During the last 6 years, the increasing use of transesophageal echocardiography has shown that atherosclerotic plaque in the thoracic aorta is a source of otherwise unexplained embolic events, including stroke, transient ischemic attack, and peripheral emboli.

An additional, different clinical picture-the classic atheroemboli syndrome-is associated with aortic atherosclerosis. This well-described syndrome consists of renal insufficiency, skin lesions, blue toes, and multisystem findings caused by embolic phenomena. It can occur spontaneously but frequently results from arterial manipulation, such as cardiac catheterization and aortotomy during coronary artery bypass surgery.

Reference: Itzhak Kronzon, MD, and Paul A. Tunick, MD ; Atheromatous Disease of the Thoracic Aorta: Pathologic and Clinical Implications; 15 April 1997 | Volume 126 Issue 8 | Pages 629-637

Pharmacology


1. Which of the following can be given with OCP

a. Mebendazole,
b. Amoxycillin,
c. Phenytoin,
d. Rifampin



2. Mode of action of vigabatrin is

a. Inhibitor of GABA transaminase increasing GABA conc,
b. Suppress Na+ current channels,
c. Inhibit T type Ca 2+ channel,
d. None



3. Mode of action of baclofen is

a. Act as GABA receptor agonist thro hyperpolarising neurons by increasing k+ conductance and altering ca2+ flux ,
b. Depolarise muscle by opening Na+ channel,
c. Both,
d. None



4. Moricizine used as antiarrhythmic causes: -

a. Prolongation of action potential,
b. Decrease action potential,
c. No change in action potential,
d. None of the above.



5. All of the following can be used against chloroquine resistant malaria except

a. Mefloquine,
b. Quinine,
c. Primaquine,
d. Halofantrine.



6. Ethanol elimination is a

a. Linear elimination,
b. Dose dependent,
c. Saturation type,
d. Fixed elimination



7. Prodrug used in prostatic carcinoma with antiandrogenic action is

a. Cyproterone,
b. Clomiphene,
c. Danazol,
d. Tamoxifen



8. Which of the following is not hepatotoxic

a. INH,
b.Rifampin,
c. Ethambutol,
d. Pyarizinamide.



9. Which of the following is a best drug to stop cisplatin induced vomiting

a. Ondensetron,
b. Cisapride,
d. Domperidone,
c. Metoclopramide



10. Drug of choice to be used in SVT with WPW is

a. Verapamil,
b. Amiodarone,
c. Lignocaine,
d. Digoxin



11. Dorazolamide is a

a. Topical carbonic anhydrase inhibitor,
b. Systemic carbonic anhydrase inhibitor,
c. Both,
d. None.



12. Organophosphorus poisoning acts by

a. Adrenergic action,
b. Cholinergic action,
c. Anticholinesterase action,
d. Pseudocholinesterase inhibitor.



13. Cocaine is

a. Vasodilator,
b. Vasoconstrictor and Hypertensive,
c. Vasodilator and bradycardia,
d. Vasodilation followed by vasoconstriction.



14. Caffeine is given along with ergotamine to cause

a. Increased absorption,
b. Toxicity,
c. No advantage,
d. For colouring.



15. Plasma concentration reflects the action in

a. Digoxin,
b. Hit and run drug,
c. Diuretic,
d. Lignocaine



16. Dopamine agonist is

a. Reserpine,
b. Metoclopramide,
c. Bromocriptine,
d. Haloperidol.


Pathology


1. All of the following are due to congestion of blood except

a. brown induration of lung,
b. Strawberry gall bladder,
c. Nutmeg liver,
d. Sago spleen.



2. Poor prognostic factor is liver disease is

a. Bile lake,
b. Collagen formation,
c. Mallory hyaline body,
d. Councilman body.



3. Lymphatic spread is most common in

a. Rhabdomyosarcoma,
b. Dermatofibrosarcoma,
c. Liposarcoma,
d. Osteosarcoma.


4. Renal pathology in SLE is all except: -

a. Lipoid nephrosis,
b. Focal Proliferative,
c. Diffuse proliferation,
d. Diffuse membranous.



5. All are granulomatous except

a. Giardiasis,
b. Histoplasmosis,
c. Schistosomiasis,
d. Leprosy



6. CML is associated with

a. Philadelphia chromosome,
b. Persistent barr body,
c. San Francisco chromosome,
d. XXY.



7. Function of Kupfer cells is

a. Phagocytic,
b. Lytic,
c. Secretory,
d. Excretory



8. Radiation acts by all of these except

a. Autoimmunity,
b. Mutation,
c. Free radical,
d. DNA breakage.



9. Edema is caused by all except

a. Decrease protein in plasma,
b. Decrease protein in interstitial fluid,
c. Increased protein in plasma,
d. none of the above.



10. In fibrocystic disease of breast all are seen except

a. Inflammation,
b. Fibrosis,
c. Dilatation of ducts which appear cystic ,
d. Adenosis



11. Comedocarcinoma of breast

a. Synonym for tubular carcinoma,
b. Variant of paget’s disease of nipple,
c. Synonym of scirrhous carcinoma,
d. On cut section punctate areas of necrotic material is seen


Microbiology


1. Heterophile antibody is seen in

a. Coomb’s test,
b. Casoni’s test,
c. Weil felix reaction,
d. Frei’s test



2. Test to detect echinococcus infection is

a. Napiers Aldehyde test,
b. Sabin Feldman dye test,
c. Casoni’s test,
d. Free’s test.



3. Dimorphic fungus is

a. Cryptococcus,
d. Aspergillus,
c. Histoplasma,
d. sporothrix



4. Characteristic feature of strongyloides infection is

a. Malabsorption,
b.Anemia,
c. Invades satiated muscle,
d. Intestinal obstruction.



5. Food poisoning is caused by all the following except

A.Vibrio Cholera
B. Salmonella
C. Staphylococci
D.Clostridium perfringens



6. Which of the following crosses placenta

a. Ig G,
b. Ig A.
c. Ig M,
d. Ig E.



7. Most effective mode of transmission of the HIV is

a. Blood transfusion,
b. By syringes,
c. Vertical transmission,
d. Heterosexual contact.



8. Bacterial resistance transmission is through

a. Conjugation,
b. transduction,
c. Convocation
d. Transformation


9. Kyasanur forest disease is caused by

a. Virus,
b. Louse,
c. Mite,
d. Tick



10. Ascariasis causes

a. Intestinal obstruction,
b. Bile duct obstruction,
c. Both,
d. neither


Forensic Medicine


1. Double edge sword produces which type of wound

a. Triangular,
b. Elliptical,
c. Wedge shape,
d. Oval.



2. In a case of drowning froth was coming out of mouth froth was

a. Fine and Frothy,
b. Coarse and turbid,
c. Blood stained,
d. Fine and bubbling.



3. Regarding sudden infant death all are true except

a. Mother taking narcotics,
b. Congenital defect,
c. Previous SIDS,
d. Prematurity.



4. While taking dying declaration, a doctor should

a. Call magistrate,
b.Testify the statements made under sound mind,
c. Note down the declaration,
d. Arrange for the witness.



5. Putrefaction occurs over the caecal area after around

a. 12 hours,
b. 12-24 hours,
c. 24-28 hours,
d. 3 days.



6. Blood stain of human origin is tested by,

a. Precipitin test,
b. Hemin test,
c. Hemochromagen test,
d. Benzidine test.


SPM


1. Commonest cause of blindness in India is

a. Malnutrition,
b. Trachoma,
c. Conjunctivitis,
d. Refraction error.


2. What is the treatment of multibacillary leprosy as directed by WHO

a.24 months treatment in 36 months
b.24 months treatment in 30 months
c.24 months treatment in 24 months
d.6 months treatment in 9 months.



3. SET centers are used in

a. Leprosy elimination,
b. TB control,
c. Guineaworm eradication,
d. Malaria survey.



4. Minimum qualification of village health guide should be

a. Should have passed at least VI standard,
b. Can read and write,
c. Passed X standard,
d. Should be a graduate.



5. What is the percentage of weight for height at which severe malnutrition is diagnosed

a.less than 90 per centile
b.less than 80 per centile
c.less than 70per centile
d.less than 60 per centile



6. Mesotheliomas are due to

a. Asbestosis,
b. Silicosis,
c. Byssinosis,
d. Bagassosis



7. Which is the following Arboviral infection is not found in India

a. Yellow fever,
b. Japanese encephalitis,
c. KFD,
d. West Nile fever



8. Most effective method of transmission of leprosy is

a. Skin to skin contact,
b. Droplet infection,
c. Urine,
d. Blood transmission.



9. For malaria control, DDT is sprayed

a. Rice fields,
b. Indoor,
c. Outdoor,
d. wheat fields.



10. Under 5 mortality rate x 100 denotes:
Total deaths during the year

a. Proportional mortality rate,
b. Specific mortality rate,
c. Case fatality rate,
d. Child survival index.



11. Predictive value of a negative test is

a. b x 100,
b. C x 100,
c. d x 100,
d. a x 100

a+b c+d c+d a+b



12. Unmodified risk factors for heart disease is

a. Smoking,
b. Alcohol,
c. family history,
d. Cholesterol.



13. Which of the following comes under UIP

a. Hepatitis B,
b. Rubella,
c. Measles,
d. None



14. Food poisoning is caused by

a. Staphylococci ,
b. Pseudomonas,
c. Streptococci,
d. Vibrio cholera



15. PQLI includes

a. Education, IMR, life expectancy of infant,
b. Per capita income, education, IMR,
c. MMR, IMR education,
d. Life expectancy at age 1m IMR, literacy.



16. Goals to be achieved by 2000 were

a. IMR less than 60, CBR less than 21,
b. IMR less than 80, CBR less than 21,
c. CBR less than 10, IMR less than 60,
d. MMR less than10, IMR less than 60.

17. Worker on roti diet presents with diarrhea and CNS symptoms, freckles over neck and dermatitis. Also rashes are present on exposed parts of body. Probable cause is
a. Vitamin B1 deficiency,
b. Vitamin B2 deficiency,
c. Niacin deficiency,
d. Protein calorie malnutrition.

18. In case control study, control is
a. Chosen before the study, b. free from the disease,
c. Suffering from the disease,
d. Should be different from case in age sex etc.

19. Which of the following has shortest incubation period in case of food poisoning

a. Staphylococci,
b. Salmonella,
c.Clostridium botulinium,
d. Bacillus cereus.

The Correct Answer is C

The pterygomandibular raphé (pterygomandibular ligament) is a tendinous band of the buccopharyngeal fascia, attached by one extremity to the hamulus of the medial pterygoid plate, and by the other to the posterior end of the mylohyoid line of the mandible.

• Its medial surface is covered by the mucous membrane of the mouth.

• Its lateral surface is separated from the ramus of the mandible by a quantity of adipose tissue.

• Its posterior border gives attachment to the superior pharyngeal constrictor muscle.

• Its anterior border attaches to the posterior edge of the buccinator.

The Correct Answer is b


* Parasympathetic innervation to the submandibular glands is provided by the superior salivatory nucleus via the chorda tympani, a branch of the facial nerve that synapses in the submandibular ganglion after which it follows the Lingual nerve leaving this nerve as it approaches the gland. Increased parasympathetic activity promotes the secretion of saliva.

* The sympathetic nervous system regulates submandibular secretions through vasoconstriction of the arteries that supply it. Increased sympathetic activity reduces glandular bloodflow, thereby decreasing salivary secretions and producing an enzyme rich serous saliva.

The correct Answer is a,e


Cavernous sinus lies between the cranial and meningeal layers of the dura mater beside the body of the sphenoid bone;  
Cranial Nerves III, IV and V1 are in its lateral wall;
the internal carotid artery and cranial nerve VI are in its lumen.

The correct Answer is a,b


BUCCINATOR, is the most deeply located facial muscle forming the muscular foundation of the cheek. During mastication, the buccinator in conjunction with the tongue, places the food between the upper and lower teeth for grinding. In addition, since its most anterior muscular fibres extend into the upper and lower lips, the action of the muscle (in conjunction with that of the orbicularis oris), not only closes the mouth, but pressed the lips back upon the teeth, pulls the angle of the mouth laterally and flattens the cheek.

It arises from the outer surfaces of the alveolar processes of the maxilla and mandible, corresponding to the three molar teeth; and behind, from the anterior border of the pterygomandibular raphé which separates it from the superior constrictor of the pharynx.

The PAROTID DUCT (excretory) emerges from its (parotid glands) superficial portion, courses medially contacting the anterior border of the masseter muscle and the buccal fat pad, then, passes deeply through the buccinator muscle to open into the oral cavity opposite the second maxillary molar tooth.

Motor innervation is from the facial nerve (cranial nerve VII), and sensory innervation is from the buccal branch of the trigeminal nerve (cranial nerve V).

Paracusis is seen in

a. otosclerosis,
b. Otogenic deafness
c. CSOM
d. Meniere’s disease

Answer

Tags: MCQ, ENT, Paracusis

Nasopharyngeal Angiofibroma is most commonly seen in

a. Young female,
b. Elderly female,
c. Infants,
d. Young boy.

Answer

Tags: MCQ, ENT, Angiofibroma

Betahistine hydrochloride is used in the treatment of

a. Meniere’s disease
b. Otosclerosis
C. CSOM
d. ASOM

Answer

Tags: MCQ, Pharmacology, Betahistine, MAHE,

Power of microscope used in microlaryngoscopy

a.400mm
b.200mm
c.300mm
d.250mm

Answer

Tags: MCQ, ENT, Laryngoscopy, MAHE

Cholesteatoma is most commonly found in

a. Tubotympanic CSOM,
b. Atticoantral CSOM,
c. Serous otitis media,
d. Foreign body in ear.

Answer

Tags: MCQ, ENT, Cholesteatoma

Caldwell luc operation is done in

a. Frontal sinus,
b. Maxillary sinus,
c. Ethmoid,
d. Sphenoid sinus.

Answer

Tags: MCQ, ENT, MAHE, Caldwell-luc

Ludwig’s angina is seen in

a. Submandibular region,
b. Sublingual region,
c. submental region,
d. Deep neck space.

Answer

Tags: MCQ, ENT, Ludwig's Angina

Myiasis is

a. Maggots is nose,
b. Maggots in sinus,
c. Maggots in mouth,
d. None of the above.

Answer

Tags: MCQ, ENT, MAHE, Myiasis

Middle ear pressure is measured by

a. Tuning fork,
b. Pure tone audiometry,
c. Electrocochleography,
d. Impedance Audiometry.

Answer

Tags: MCQ, ENT, Middle Ear Pressure

Tumor which is friable and bleeds on touch is

a. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma,
b. Maxillary antrum tumor,
c. Rhinosporidosis,
d. Angiofibroma.

Answer

Tags: MCQ, ENT, Friable, Rhinosporidiosis

Male voice does not break at puberty it is called as

a. Pubophonia,
b. Spastic dysphonia,
c. Esophageal voice,
d. Dysphonia plica ventricularis

Answer

Tags: MCQ, ENT, MAHE

True regarding vocal cord is

a. Rima glottis is diamond shape during phonation,
b. Partial lesion of recurrent laryngeal nerve causes adduction of vocal cord,
c. Posterior cricoarytenoid causes adduction of vocal cords,
d. Lateral cricoarytenoid causes abduction of vocal cords.

Answer

Tags: MCQ, ENT, Vocal Cord

Mode of transmission of congenital glaucoma is

a. Autosomal recessive
b. Autosomal document
c. X- Linked recessive
d. X- Linked dominant

Answer

Tags: MCQ, Genetics, Pediatrics, Ophthalmology, Glaucoma, Mahe

Drug of choice in angular conjunctivitis is

a. Oxytetracycline,
b. Chlormycetin,
c. Ciprofloxacin,
d. Gentamycin

Answer

Tags: MCQ, ophthalmology, Angular Conjuntivitis

What is the shape of pupil in acute iridocyclitis

a.oval and dilated
b.small and irregular
c.large and round
d.none

Answer

Which of the following is contraindicated in the treatment of acute congestive glaucoma

a.atropine
b.pilocarpine
c.timolol
d.dorzolamide

Answer

Type of discharge in spring catarrh is

a. Ropy white discharge,
b. Purulent discharge,
c. Mucopurulent discharge,
d. Orange fluorescent discharge.

Answer

Tags: MCQ, ophthalmology, Spring Catarrh

Second sight is seen in

a. Lental sclerosis,
b. Morgagnian,
c. Nuclear cataract,
d. Cortical cataract.

Answer

Tags: MCQ, Cataract, Second Sight

Rosette shaped cataract is a feature of

a.concussion injury
b.diabetes mellitus
c.Congenital Rubella
d. Wilson's Disease

Answer

Diabetic retinopathy A/E

a. Visual symptoms occur early,
b. Severity depends on duration,
c. regular control of sugar helps in control,
d. None

Answer

Tags: MCQ, Ophthalmology, Diabetic Retinopathy

10 year old child presents with cough fever diarrhea, splenomegaly since 10 days, abdominal distension is suffering form

a. Typhoid,
b. Malaria,
c. Infection,
d. Tuberculosis

Answer

Tags: MCQ, Infectious Diseases, Pediatrics

The rates of upper and lower body segment becomes equal at

a. 4 years,
b. 5 years,
c. 6-years,
d. 7 years.

Answer

Tags: MCQ, Pediatrics, Body Proportions

Increase in alpha fetoprotein is seen in all except

a. Downs syndrome,
b. Prematurity,
c. Embryonal cell carcinoma,
d. Yolk sac tumor.

Answer

Tags: MCQ, AFP, Alpha Feto Protein

Cleft palate is seen in

a.Down's syndrome
b.Edward's syndrome
c.Patau's syndrome
d.Turner's syndrome.

Answer

When does the child starts riding tricycle

a. 4 years

b. 3 years

c. 2years

d. 5 years

Answer

Breath holding spell in child which of the following should be done

a. Call the doctor and see him,
b. Ignore the child,
c. Give diazepam,
d. Take an ECG.

Answer

Tags: MCQ, Pediatrics, Breath holding

Which of the following is true about Mongolian spots

a.it is common in Mongol race in South East Asia
b.it regresses by itself by one year
c.it is associated with Down's syndrome
d.treated withsteroids

Harlequin skin changes are associated with

a. it is a normal phenomenon
b. seen in icthiyosis
c. septicemia
d. None Of The Above

Answer

Down’s syndrome is due to

a. Triploidy
b. Polyploidy
c. tetraploidy
d. Aneuploidy

Answer

A patient on prolonged therapy for lymphoma has developed immunosuppression following can cause pulmonary affection except

a. CMV,
b. EBV,
c. Good Pasteur’s disease,
d. Drug induced infiltrate

Answer

Tags: MCQ, Medicine, Immunosuppression

In HIV, person develops AIDS when CD4 + count is

a. Less Than 400,
b. Less Than 200,
c. 50-100
d. 500


Answer

Apathetic hyperthyroidism is characterized by all except:

a. Elderly people are affected,
b. Insidious in onset,
c. It is familial disorder,
d. Proximal myopathy, cardiomyopathy also occurs

Answer

Tags: MCQ, Medicine, thyrotoxicosis, Thyroid

Which of the following is X-linked recessive disorder

a. Huntington’s chorea,
b. Duchenne muscular dystrophy,
c. Von willebrand’s disease,
d. Polycystic kidney.

Answer

Tags: MCQ, Medicine, Genetics, X-linked Recessive

Nitric oxide acts by

a. Stimulating Cox-2,
b. Inhibiting Cox-1,
c. Phospholipase A2,
d. Lipooxygenase pathway.

Answer

Tags: MCQ, Medicine, Nitric Oxide

About lepromatous leprosy true is all except

a. Indefinate margins are there,
b. central clearing is not present,
c. raised edges are seen,
d. Sensation is lost late.

Answer

Tags: MCQ, Medicien, Leprosy

A patient presents with short stature and no barr body in cytology, all of the following are possible except

a. Turners syndrome,
b. testicular feminisation,
c. Klienfelters syndrome,
d. None of the above.

Answer

Tags: MCQ, Medicine, Genetics, Barr body

In vitamin B6 dependent anemia the RBC are

a. Microcytic hypochromic,
b. Macrocytic,
c. Spherocytic,
d. Elliptocytic

Answer

Tags: MCQ, Hematology, Anemia, Vitamin B6

Regarding megalablastic anemia all are true except

a. Extramedullary hemolysis occurs,
b. Intramedullary hemolysis occurs,
c. Thrombocytes are enlarged,
d. Gastric cellular atypia occurs.

Answer

Tags: MCQS, Medicine, Megaloblastic Anemia

Chronic subdural hematoma

a. Slow absorption of csf into the clot,
b. Secondarily infected,
c. Bleeding into tuberculoma,
d. Bleeding of middle meningeal artery.

Answer

Tags: MCQ, Medicine, Chronic Subdural Hematoma

A COPD patient has pH pf 6.5, PaCo2 is 60 mmHg and Pao2 is 44mm Mg is suffering from:


a. Respiratory acidosis,
b. respiratory alkalosis,
c. Metabolic acidosis,
d. Metabolic alkalosis.

Answer

Tags: MCQ, Acid Base Disturbances, Medicine

When iodine is given, it causes regression of thyroxine is called wolf chaikoff effect it is used in

a. Lugol’s iodine is used before operation in hyperthyroidism,
b. Iodine following surgery,
c. iodine in salt,
d. None of the above.

Answer

Tags: MCQ, surgery, Medicine, Wolff-Chaikoff

Regarding acute severe asthma all are true except

a. Pulses paradoxus,
b. Tachypnea,
c. Tachycardia,
d. Decreased Pa Co2 level.

Answer

Tags: MCQ, Medicine, Asthma

Which of the following is given for prophylaxis of Rheumatic fever.

a. Benzyl penicillin,
b. Benzathine penicillin,
c. Procaine penicillin,
d. Any of the above.

Answer

Tags: MCQ, Medicine, Penicillin, Rheumatic Fever

Which of the following vaccines is contraindicated in pregnancy

a.typhoid
b.rubella
c.rabies
d.hepatitis B

Answer

Tags: MCQ, PSM, Mahe, Obstetrics, Vaccination

Most common nosocomial infection is


a. UTI,
b. respiratory,
c. skin,
d. Gastrointestinal

Answer

Tags: MCQ, Medicine,

HDV is

a. Complete virus,
b. Incomplete virus,
c. partial virus,
d. Total virus.

Answer

Tags: MCQ, Medicine, Hepatitis D Virus

Which of the following statements is true

a.90% duodenal ulcers are associated with H.pylori
b.90% gastric ulcers are associated with H.pylori
c.10% gastric ulcers are associated with H.pylori
d.10%duodenal ulcers are associated with H.pylori

Answer

In a patient with heart rate of 40/minute P wave is absent and QRS complex is normal probably patient must be having

a. Atrial fibrillation,
b. Incomplete AV block,
c. Ectopic pacemaker,
d. Sinus arrythmia.

Answer

Tags: MCQ, Cardiology, ECG

Regarding toxoplasmosis all are true except

a. 50% of infants are infected in first trimester
b. 65% fetus involved in 3rd trimester
c. Perinatal mortality rate is 5-10%
d. IgM is seen in 80% of mothers.

Answer

In CML all are given except

a. Melphalan,
b. Busulphan,
c. Interferon,
d. Hydroxyurea

Answer

Tags: MCQ, CML, Chemotherapy

Treatment of choice for pneumocystis carinii infection is

a. Cotrimazole,
b. Rifampin,
c. Trimethoprim only,
d. Interferon Alpha

Answer

Tags: MCQ, Medicine, Pneumocystis Carinii

Indicators of internal malignancy are all except

a. Acanthosis nigricans,
b. Trosseau’s sign,
c. Trosier’s node,
d. Spider Angiomas.

Answer

Tags: MCQ, surgery, Dermatology, Tumor Markers

Best way to investigate Hemobilia is

a. PTCA,
b. Angiography,
c. USG,
d. ERCP

Answer

Tags: MCQ, surgery, Hemobilia

All of the following predispose to cholangiocarcinoma except

a. Previous Cholecystectomy,
b. Sclerosing cholangitis,
c. Choledochal cyst,
d. Inflammatory bowel disease.

Answer

Tags: MCQ, Surgery, MAHE, Cholangiocarcinoma

Regarding hirschsprung’s disease all are true except

a. Affected segment will be dilated,
b. Auerbach’s and meissner’s plexus are absent,
c. Entire colon is rarely involved,
d. More common in females.

Answer

Tags: MCQ, surgery, Hirschsprung’s disease

Which of the following is most common complication after appendicectomy

a. Wound infection,
b. Fecal fistula,
c. Subphrenic abcess,
d. Portal pyemia

Answer

Tags: MCQ, surgery, Appendicectomy

Regarding Hutchison freckle which of the following is true

a. Change lentigo maligna into malignant melanoma,
b. Amelanotic,
c. Nodular,
d. Acral lentiginous.

Answer

Tags: MCQ, Dermatology, Malignant Melanoma

Which of the following is commonly used solution as preservative during renal transplantation.

a. University of Wisconsin solution (UAW),
b. ringer Lacate,
c. Dextrose 5%,
d. Formalin.

Answer

Tags: MCQ, Surgery, MAHE, Organ transplant

Double bubble sign is seen in

a. Esophageal carcinoma,
b. Jejunal atresia,
c. Duodenal atresia,
d, Omphalocele.

Answer

Tags: MCQ, Surgery, Duodenal Atresia

After influenza infection a lady developed painful thyroid swelling, diagnosis is

a. Reidle’s thyroiditis,
b. Subacute granulomatous thyroiditis,
c. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis,
d. Graves disease.

Answer

Tags: MCQ, Surgery, Subacute thyroiditis

Most common benign lesion in esophagus is

a. Leiomyoma,
b. Neurofibroma,
c. Lipoma,
d. Hemangioma.

Answer

Tags: MCQ, Surgery, Gastroenterology, Leiomyoma

Which is the most dangerous complication of LGV

a. Rectal stricture,
b. Uretheral structure,
c. Pelvic Abscess,
d. Inguinal swelling.

Answer

Tags: MCQ, surgery, LGV

Regarding crohn’s disease all are true

a. Transmural,
b. Fistula are common,
c. Premalignant lesion,
d. Mycobacterium flavum is the cause.

Answer

Tags: MCQ, Surgery, Crohn's Disease

All of the following is associated with gastric carcinoma except.

a. Previous surgery,
b. Group A blood group,
c. Atrophic gastritis,
d. Gastric ulcer.

Answer

Tags: MCQ, Surgery, Gastric Cancer

Normal portal pressure is

a. 7-10mm of the saline,
b. 7-10mm of Hg,
c. 5-7mm Hg,
d. 20-30mm Hg.

Answer

Tags: MCQ, Surgery, MAHE, Portal Vein

Desmoid tumor is

a. Tumor of anterior abdominal wall,
b. Primary tumor of umblicus,
c. Type of sarcoma,
d. Metastasis to umbilicus from primary in abdomen.

Answer

Tags: MCQ, Surgery, Desmoid Tumor, Pathology

Dequervain’s thyroiditis true is all except

a. Raised Esr,
b. Spontaneous resolution,
c. Increased iodine uptake.
D. Follows viral infection.

Answer

Tags: MCQ, Surgery, Endocrinology, SubAcute Thyroididtis

Proptosis is seen mainly in

a. Thyroglossal cyst,
b. orbital tumors,
c. Myxedema,
d. Thyrotoxicosis.

Answer

Tags: MCQ, surgery, Proptosis, Ophthalmology

Synergistic gangrene is caused by

a. Anaerobic streptococcus and staphylococci infection,
b. Microaerophilic staphylococci,
c. Closotridium botulinism,
d. All of the above.

Answer

Tags: MCQ, surgery, Synergestic Gangrene

Taussig’s operation is

1.Extraperitoneal lymphadenectomy,
b. Intraperitoneal lymphadenectomy,
c. Modified neck node dissection,
d. Pelvic extenteration

Answer

Meleny’s ulcer is

a. Due to synergistic action of staphylococci and streptococci,
b. Known to occur in burns,
c. Occurs in head injury,
d. Self resolving condition of ankle.

Answer

Tags: mcq, surgery, Meleney's Ulcer

Which of the following is premalignant condition

a. Condyloma acuminata,
b. Atypical endometrial hyperplasia,
c. cervical polyp,
d. Fordyce spots.

Answer

Tags: MCQ, Surgery, Premalignant

March fracture is seen in

a. 2nd metatarsal,
b. metacarpals,
c. 3rd metacarpals,
d. 5th metatarsal.

Answer

Tags: MCQ, Orthopedics, March Fracture

Loosers zone is seen in

a. Osteopetrosis,
b. Osteomalacia,
c. Osteoarthritis,
d. osteoporosis.

Answer

Tags: MCQ, Orthopedics, Looser's Zone

Hangman’s fracture is

a. Spondylolisthesis of C2 over C3 ,
b. Fracture of odontoid process,
c. Fracture of transverse process,
d. Dislocation of C5.

Answer

Tags: MCQ, Orthopedics, Hangman's Fracture

Bunion is

a. Fluid filled bursa over bony prominence,
b. Benign tumour of sensational bones,
c. Communication between radial and ulnar bursae,
d. Cyst between radical and ulnar bursae.

Answer

Tags: MCQ, Orthopedics, Bunions

Osteochondroma develops into

a. Chondrosarcoma,
b. Osteosacroma,
c. Exostosis,
d. Osteoma.

Answer

Tags: MCQ, Orthopedics, Pathology, Chondrosarcoma

Test for dequervain’s tenosynovitis is

a. Frankelstein test,
b. Phalen’s test,
c. Tinel’s sign,
d. Apley grinding test.

Answer

Tags: MCQ, Orthopedics, De Quervain’s disease

Regarding Rheumatoid arthritis all are true except.

a. Morning stiffness of less than 15 minutes,
b. Small joints of hand are involved,
c. More then 3 joints are involved,
d. Symmetrical involvement of joints.

Answer

Tags: MCQ, Orthopedics, Rheumatoid Arthritis

Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystals are seen in

a. Gout,
b. Pseudogout,
c. Arthritis,
d. Osteomalacia.

Answer

Tags: MCQ, MAHE, Orthopedics, Gout, Pseudogout, Crystal

Regarding hip joint which of the following is true.

a. Ligamentum Teres attaches the head of femur to hip bone,
b. After fracture neck of femur, psoas muscle acts lateral rotator of femur,
c. Abductor muscles are supplied by inferior gluteal nerve,
d. Capsule of hip joint is attached to intertrochantric ridge.

Answer

Grayish white frothy discharge per vaginum is seen in

a. Candida,
b. Gardenella vaginalis,
c. Trichomonas,
d. All of the above.

Answer

Tags: MCQ, Gynecology, Vaginosis

Pregnant woman is anemic when Hb is less than

a. 9gm%,
b. 10gm%,
c. 11gm%,
d. 12gm%.

Answer

Endometrial carcinoma with involved paraaortic lymph node is staged as: -

a. IIIb,
b. IIIc,
c. IVa,
d. IVa.

Answer

Tags: MCQ, Gynecology, Endometrial Cancer

Embryonic period is after conception to

a. 8 weeks,
b. 10 weeks,
c. 12 weeks,
d. 72 hours.

Answer

Tags: MCQ, Embryology, Obstetrics

Which of the following is the surgery done for stress incontinence

a.Buch colposuspension
b.Gillam's operation
c.Shirodkar's sling
d.Manchester method

Answer

Tags: MCQ, Surgery, Stress Incontinence, Gynecology, MAHE

Call exner bodies are seen in

a. Granulosa cell tumor,
b. Dysgerminoma,
c. Theca cell tumor,
d. Endodermal sinus tumor.

Answer

Tags: MCQ, Gynecology, Pathology, Ovarian Neoplasms

Litzmans obliquity is

a. Nagelle pelvis,
b. Normal synclitism,
c. Anterior synclitism,
d. Posterior asynclitism.

Answer

Tags: MCQ, Obstetrics, Litzmann's Obliquity, Asynclitism

In the left anterior oblique breech presentation diameter of engagement of head is

a. Left lateral oblique,
b. Right anterior oblique,
c. Occipito transverse,
d. Anterior position.

Answer

Tags: MCQ, Obstetrics, Breech

SLE in pregnancy true in all except

a. Causes recurrent abortion,
b. Lupus anticoagulant in an anticoagulant in vitro,
c. Causes eclampsia,
d. Corticosteroids are contraindicated.

Answer

Tags: MCQ, Obstetrics, SLE

All are true about cephalhematoma except

a.found outside the pericranium
b.expectant management only is needed
c.it appears few hrs after delivery
d.pitting on pressure is seen

Answer

Most common presentation of genitourinary TB is

a. Oligomenorrhea,
b. Menorrhagia,
c. Secondary Amenmorrhea,
d. Primary dysmenorrhea.

Answer

Tags: MCQ, Gynecology, MAHE

Menopausal symptoms are due to lack of

a. LH,
b. FSH,
c. Estrogen,
d. Progesterone.

Answer

Tags: MCQ, Gynecology, Menopause

Which of the following does not cross placenta

a. heparin,
b. Warfarin,
c. Tetracycline,
d. Insulin.

Answer

Tags: MCQ, Obstetrics, Placental Barrier

Mifepristone in MTP acts by

a. Agonist of progesterone,
b. Agonist of estrogen,
c. Antagonist of progesterone,
d. Antagonist of estrogen.

Answer

Tags: MCQ, Obstetrics, Mifepristone

AFP can be used to determine all except

a. Downs syndrome,
b. IUGR,
c. Preterm infant,
d. Neural tube defects.

Answer

Tags: MCQ, Obstetrics, AFP, MAHE

Suckling releases which hormone from pituitary

a. Prolactin,
b. Oxytocin,
c. Somatostatin,
d. Somatomedin

Answer

Tags: MCQ, Obstetrics, Endocrinology, Suckling

Silvery scales on erythematous skin is seen in

a. Pemphigus,
b. Pityriasis versicolor,
c. Psoriasis,
d. Erythema nodosum.

Answer

Tags: MCQ, Dermatology, Psoriasis

Ultra violet light most commonly effects

a. Skin,
b. Liver,
c. Lung,
d. Kidney.

Answer

Tags: MCQ, Dermatology, UV light, UV Radiation